| Jesus and His God |
John 1:1 and the TrinitarianIn the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God [TON THEON], and the Word was God [THEOS]. The same was in the beginning with God [TON THEON]. -- John 1:1,2, World English - transliterations from the Westcott & Hort Interlinear.John 1:1 is often given to us by trinitarians as proof of their trinitarian dogma. However, even amongst trinitarian scholars there appears to be some disagreement as to how or in what way John's statement in John 1:1 should be applied Most trinitarians will tell us that Jesus is not "TON THEON" whom he was, but that, in some way, both TON THEON and the LOGOS are to be considered as the "one true God." Therefore, In order to get trinity out of John 1:1, the trinitarian has to suppose, add to and read into the verse several things: (1) that two persons of the trinity-god are being spoken of here, and (2) that TON THEON whom the Logos was with is the their alleged "first person" of the trinity, and (3) that THEOS applied to the Word is their alleged "second person" of the trinity. Then, (4) they need to add to these assumptions that these two alleged persons of their trinity are both the same one true God. Rather than assuming and adding such to the scriptures, it is best to simply let the scriptures have their own say, applying spiritual revealment with spiritual revealment. -- 1 Corinthians 2:10,13. The word THEOS is being applied to the LOGOS in John 1:1, but this does not mean that John was saying that Jesus was the only true God whom the LOGOS was with, as it should be apparent since twice John states that the LOGOS was with God. Jesus lets us know that One whom he was with before the world was made was "the only true God" (John 17:1,3,5); therefore, the scriptures make it plain that John is not saying that the Logos was the only true God whom the Logos was with. Thus, the term THEOS as applied to the Logos should be applied with the general meaning of the Hebraic words for deity/divinity (form of EL, ELOHIM), that is, of strength, power, might. While most translations render "kai theos een ho logos" as "the Word was God," Moffat renders this phrase as ""the Word was divine." Julius Mantey declares that the phrase means "the Word was deity." We should have no objection to rendering theos as divine or deity, if one applies the terms divine and deity with the general meaning of strength, might, power, rather than as Supreme Being -- the Might of the Universe. James Parkinson, in his footnote of the American Revised Version Improved and Corrected, suggests "mighty was the Word." This would be the better rendering, or a rendering such as "the Word was mighty," both of which would distinguish the Word from the only true God whom the Logos was with. This would be in agreement with the rest of the scriptures, where the words for deity / divinity are applied to persons (and even things) who are not Yahweh in a general sense of might, power or strength. The best point to begin with to show this usage is with John 10:34,35, where Jesus quotes/references Psalms 82:1,6, where both forms of the Hebrew word EL and ELOHIM are applied the sons of the Most High, the sons to whom the Logos came (as Jesus explained). In John 10:34,35, the word ELOHIM is rendered as THEOI, the plural of THEOS. According the King James Version, God [ELOHIM] standeth in the congregation of the mighty [EL]. (Psalm 82:1) In reference to the sons of the Most High, the KJV renders the term EL as "the mighty." I believe that the KJV is correct in this rendering. Applying this scriptural principle to THEOS in John 1:1, we would likewise have "the Logos was mighty." Of course, this is not the only place that the KJV renders forms of the words EL (Strong's Hebrew #410) and ELOHIM (Strong's Hebrew #430) with terms showing mightiness or strength. Here are a few scriptures, with the rendering of EL or ELOHIM given in parenthesis: Genesis 23:6 (mighty); Genesis 30:8 (mighty); Genesis 31:29 (power); Deuteronomy 28:32 (might); 1 Samuel 14:15 (great); Nehemiah 5:5 (power); Psalm 8:5 (angels); Psalm 36:6 (great); Proverbs 3:27 (power); Psalm 29:1 (mighty); Ezekiel 32:21 (strong); Jonah 3:3 (exceeding). The point is the King James translators, in all these verses, did not render the word for deity/divinity [EL] as "God" or as "god", but with terms of might, strength, great, power and might. All of the spirit beings, by "nature" of the superior might given to them by the Almighty are scripturally designated as el or elohim, and thus can be spoken of as divine -- mighty -- in being. -- Psalm 8:5 (compare Hebrews 2:9; also Psalm 50:1 and 96:4 could be speaking of angels as elohim); 45:6,7; Isaiah 9:6,7; John 1:1,2; Acts 2:33; 5:31; Ephesians 1:20,22; Philippians 2:9-11; Hebrews 1:2-4,8; 1 Peter 1:21; 3:22. Likewise, the firstborn creature (Colossians 1:15), who existed before all the creation that was created by means of him (Colossians 1:17), can certainly also have the term theos applied to him without meaning that he is the only true God who sent him. Indeed, before he became a man, he "was" a mighty spirit being, having a heavenly glory that he did not possess while he was a human. -- John 17:5; 1 Corinthians 15:40. Christian love, Ronald 01:08 - Saturday, June 7, 2008 - comments {0} - post commentMystery of the Godhead? - 1 Timothy 3:16Trinitarians, as well as oneness believers, and some others, often speak of the "mystery of the Godhead". They cite 1 Timothy 3:16 as declaring such a mystery. (http://tinyurl.com/yotz92) It seems that many of them read the expression "mystery of godliness" so though it says "mystery of the Godhead." In actuality, there is nothing at all in 1 Timothy 3:16 about "godhead" or "trinity". While we do find a mystery being spoken of, we do not find anything there, or anywhere else in the Bible, about a mystery of a trinity, or a mystery of "the godhead".1 Timothy 3:16 - By common confession, great is the mystery of godliness: He who was revealed in the flesh, Was vindicated in the Spirit, Seen by angels, Proclaimed among the nations, Believed on in the world, Taken up in glory. -- New American Standard. Or, KJV: without controversy great is the mystery of godliness; RHM: confessedly great is the sacred secret of godliness; WMS: the mystery of our religion is a great wonder; NEB: great beyond all question is the mystery of our religion; GDS: no one can deny the profundity of the divine truth of; NWT: godly devotion; BAR: the greatness of the truth of our religion. The Greek often translated "religion" is EU-SEBEIAS [Strong's Concordance #2150, well-reverent]. Dictionary of New Testament Theology [Colin Brown], Volume 2, page 91, comments on the root meaning of this word: "The root seb- meant originally to step back from someone or something, to maintain a distance…developed the metamorphical idea of trepidation ranging from shame, through wonder, to something approaching fear." Thus, this awe [wonder/fear] inspires worship of the Creator which some call religion. The Greek for "mystery" is MYSTERION [Strong's Concordance #3466]. As mentioned, while the word "mystery" is in 1 Timothy 3:16, there is nothing in this scripture that says anything about this "mystery" being that Jesus has two states of glory at once, or that Jesus is Yahweh; such ideas have to be added to and read into what is stated. Let us examine closer the Greek word translated "mystery" and its meaning: Musterion hidden thing, secret, mystery generally mysteries, religious secrets, confided only to the initiated and not to ordinary mortals a hidden or secret thing, not obvious to the understanding a hidden purpose or counsel secret will 1c of men 1c of God: the secret counsels which govern God in dealing with the righteous, which are hidden from ungodly and wicked men but plain to the godly in rabbinic writings, it denotes the mystic or hidden sense of an OT saying of an image or form seen in a vision of a dream Thayer and Smith. "Greek Lexicon entry for Musterion". "The NAS New Testament Greek Lexicon". http://www.biblestudytools.net/Lexicons/Greek/grk.cgi?number=3466&version=nas. 1999. What is this mystery in 1 Timothy 3:16? Doesn't Paul say it is "the mystery of godliness"? So our next question is: What does "godliness" mean? The Greek word "godliness" is transliterated as "Eusebeia" which means "reverence, respect, piety toward God." Thayer and Smith. "Greek Lexicon entry for Eusebeia". "The KJV New Testament Greek Lexicon". http://www.biblestudytools.net/Lexicons/Greek/grk.cgi?number=2150. Since this is something that is done "toward God", the question arises: Is Paul, then, speaking of God's own godliness (reverence, respect, piety) toward himself as a mystery? Obviously, it is speaking of someone else's reverence toward God, not of God's reverence toward Himself. What we can be certain of is that the "mystery" spoken of is not an alleged "mystery" of a trinity, of a godhead expressed in three modes (oneness doctrine). The word translated "godliness" has to do with the manner of worship, not of a duality of natures of Jesus in the flesh (one sentient being who omniscient, and another sentient being who is not ominsicent?). The latter idea has to be twisted into the scripture. Whose godliness toward God is spoken of as a mystery? 1 Timothy 3:16 then tells of Christ "Who (as in the oldest Greek Siniatic MS text -- not "God") was manifest [Phaneroo] in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory." The Greek word *Phareroo* means: to make manifest or visible or known what has been hidden or unknown, to manifest, whether by words, or deeds, or in any other way make actual and visible, realised to make known by teaching to become manifest, be made known of a person expose to view, make manifest, to show one's self, appear to become known, to be plainly recognised, thoroughly understood who and what one is Thayer and Smith. "Greek Lexicon entry for Phaneroo". "The NAS New Testament Greek Lexicon". http://www.biblestudytools.net/Lexicons/Greek/grk.cgi?number=5319&version=nas. 1999. So, then is this mystery of godliness understood by anyone? It should be apparent that this "mystery" was understood by some, and yet it is a mystery -- not understood -- to others. Who is this mystery of godliness, of piety toward God, concerning? None other than the one spoken in the following words: the one who was revealed in the flesh, vindicated in the spirit, seen by angels, who was proclaimed among the nations, etc. That is, the Messiah, Jesus, the Son of the living God. Why is the mystery so great? Because, through the full and total obedience of Jesus, life and incorruption (Greek, Aphtharsia) has been brought to light for mankind. (2 Timothy 1:10) Jesus never once disobeyed his God, nor once did he do other than what pleased his God. By his obedience, unlike Adam, Jesus brought life and incorruption to light. What has God revealed through his scriptures concerning this mystery of godliness? This glorious One, as a human, never fell short of the glory of God by sin. (Romans 3:23) Unlike Adam and the sinful flesh produced from Adam, he fully had the crown of glory as a human, and kept the crown untainted by sin. (Hebrews 2:9) He gave up the glory of humanity, in order to provide a sacrifice for Adam and the dying race in Adam, that he might taste death for every man. Although now of a different plane of glory than he had while on earth (John 17:5; 1 Corinthians 15:40; Hebrews 2:9), he is the same one who, while on earth, was the Man Christ Jesus, a man of sorrows and acquainted with grief. (Isaiah 53:3) Jesus spoke of the glory he had before the world was made, which glory he did not have while on earth. (John 17:5) Paul tells us how Jesus left the heavenly glory, how He humbled Himself to take a bondman's form -- to take the same form of bondage as humanity had come into bondage due to sin. (Philippians 2:7,8) Jesus was not a "God-man". He was completely and totally that which the Bible claims that he was, a human being, nothing more, nothing less, "a little lower than the angels," except that the Bible reveals that his body of flesh was prepared by his God, so that his flesh was not tainted with Adamic sinful flesh. Thus he had been given a body which could be offered in sacrifice for the sinful, dying world. (Luke 22:19; John 6:51; Hebrews 10:5,10) Additionally, unlike Adam, Jesus had been with his God and Father long before the world of mankind was made (John 17:5), so that he was amply taught (John 8:28), prepared, sanctified, before the only true God sent him into the world of mankind. (John 10:36; 17:1,3) Having fully kept the law of God up until the age of 30, he was approved by his God and Father as acceptable as the atoning sacrifice for the sin of the world. (Matthew 3:15-17; Mark 1:11; Luke 3:22; John 1:29; Romans 3:25; 1 John 2:2; 4:10) Having no sin, and having proven himself fully obedient, Jesus was given unlimited access to the holy spirit of his God. -- John 3:34; Matthew 12:28. How was Jesus justified in the spirit? Jesus had no need to be justified from sin, for he was without sin. Jesus was, however, proved right, proved to be without sin, in the spirit when he was tried, even until his death. He proved to be whom he claimed, to be, the Messiah, the one without spot, without sin. His spirit of obedience never failed. Nevertheless, Paul could have been referring to Jesus' being raised "in the spirit". The matter was set straight, in other words -- not yet to unbelieving world, but before the angels -- he was "seen of angels" -- and he was justified before believers on the earth. Jesus was "preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world". The world of mankind in general has never believed on Jesus. To them all of this is still a mystery, for it has not become apparent -- it has not been revealed to their understanding -- exactly who Jesus was and is. Additionally, because of compromise -- a falling away from the true faith, God has sent his people [by allowing Satan to do his work] a strong delusion, which has furthered muddled an understanding of who Jesus is, so that even many who profess Christ have not truly understood. -- 2 Thessalonians 2:3-11. http://godandson.reslight.net/jesusnotyhwh.html http://studies.reslight.net/mysteries.html Could the mystery be understood? By whom? Jesus was believed on "in the world". The mystery was and is understood by many true believers that Jesus was indeed the one who was without sin, the man who died to correspond to Adam (Romans 5:15-19; 1 Corinthians 15:21,22; 1 Timothy 2:5,6); the one who was sent by the only true God to provide the ransom sacrifice, the propitiation, the atoning sacrifice for sin. (John 17:1,3; Romans 3:25; 1 John 2:2; 4:10) These believers are "in the world" but not "of the world". -- John 17:11,16. Jesus was received into glory; not the human glory that he had sacrificed , but the glory of a celestial, heavenly, spiritual body. -- 1 Corinthians 15:40,44. http://atonement.reslight.net/raisedspirit.html This is our confession of godliness, which is great, for we cannot have any basis for godliness on our part without the one sent by the only true God. Writings by others: http://tinyurl.com/qwbbd The claim is made by one that there are 262 out of 264 manuscripts in Greek that testify to the word "God" being the correct reading of 1 Timothy 3:16. 1 Timothy 3:16 kai homologoumenws mega estin to tees eusebeias AND CONFESSEDLY GREAT IS THE OF THE REVERING WELL 2532 3672 3173 1510_2 3588 3588 2150 musteerion hos ephanerwthee en sarki edikaiwthee MYSTERY; WHO WAS MANIFESTED IN FLESH, WAS JUSTIFIED 3466 3739 5319 1722 4561 1344 en pneumati wphthee aggelois ekeeruchthee en IN SPIRIT, WAS SEEN TO ANGELS, WAS PREACHED IN 1722 4151 3708 0032 2784 1722 ethnesin episteuthee en kosmw aneleemphthee en NATIONS, WAS BELIEVED IN WORLD, WAS TAKEN UP IN 1484 4100 1722 2889 0353 1722 doxee GLORY. 1391 Westcott & Hort Interlinear 1 Timothy 3:16 reads, in part: hOS EFANERWQH EN SARKI EDIKAIWQH EN PNEUMATI WFQH AGGELOIS EKHRUCQH EN EQNESIN EPISTEUQH EN KOSMW ANELHMFQH EN DOXH from: http://tinyurl.com/op6az While I highly doubt that Paul wrote "God" in this verse, even so, one still has to read into the verse what trinitarians claim, that it is speaking of a duality of being of Jesus, or that Jesus is Yahweh. Many refer to the above as a "hymn". The World English, based on the Textus Receptus, reads: Without controversy, the mystery of godliness is great: God was revealed in the flesh, Justified in the spirit, Seen by angels, Preached among the nations, Believed on in the world, And received up in glory. God was indeed made manifest, was revealed, in his Son in the flesh, but not to the entire world, but only "to whoever the Son wants to reveal him". (Matthew 11:27) 1 Timothy 3:16, as it reads in the Textus Receptus, does not say that Jesus was "God in the flesh", as some often misquote what is said in the KJV and some other translations of 1 Timothy 3:16. What it says is "God was revealed in the flesh." Jesus, having descending from his God and Father from heaven, knew his God. (John 3:13) Not only this, Jesus maintained piety toward His God and Father in perfect fidelity to the glory of his God and Father. Jesus did not at all fall short of the glory of God, as did Adam. -- Matthew 11:27; Luke 10:22; John 1:18; 14:6-9; 17:3,6,8,21,23,26. God was justified -- proven righteous -- in Christ's spirit of obedience, proving that God's just laws and commands for man are not unjust, by which Jesus condemned sin in the flesh, and yet, through the ransom sacrifice of Jesus, God is the justifier of the sinner. -- Romans 3:25,26; 8:3. http://atonement.reslight.net/c-s.html God was seen in Jesus by the angels. -- Matthew 4:11; 26:53; Mark 1:13; Luke 8:1; John 1:51. God was preached amongst Israel and the Gentiles through the preaching of and about His Son. -- Luke 4:43; 9:2; Mark 1:14; Luke 4:18,19,43; 8:1; 9:2; Acts 8:12; 10:42; 20:25; 28:31; Romans 15:19; 1 Corinthian 1:21; Galatians 2:2. God was being believed in among the Gentiles (as well as in Israel) through their faith in His Son, and his sacrifice for sin. -- Mark 1:15; John 1:12; 3:16,17; Romans 5:8; 2 Corinthians 5:19-20; Titus 3:4-6; 1 John 1:3; 2:23; 4:9,10,19 God, as seen in his Son, was received in glory, by which the God and Father of Jesus was glorified in His Son. -- John 12:28; 17:1; Acts 2:24-36; Romans 6:4; 15:6; Ephesians 1:17,20; Philippians 4:19,20; 1 Peter 1:3. None of this means that Jesus is the only true God, Yahweh, who sent Jesus. -- Isaiah 61:1; John 17:1,3. Additionally, the mystery being spoken of is not God's piety to himself, but mostly about His Son's piety toward his God in Jesus' perfect obedience and reflection of God's glory. As God is in Jesus, the believer is in Jesus, and Jesus and God are in the believer (John 10:38; 14:10,20; Romans 8:1,2; 12:5; 1 Corinthians 1:30; 3:1; 2 Corinthians 1:21; 5:17,19; 12:19; Galatians 2:4; 3:28), and Jesus prayed "that they may all be one; even as you, Father, are in me, and I in you, that they also may be one in us; that the world may believe that you sent me." (John 17:21, see also John 17:23) All of this pertains to the secret of piety that Paul was speaking about. Thus whether Paul actually used the word THEOS or HOS or HO does not really matter. The 264 manuscripts being referred to above are evidently the "cursive" copies of Paul's letters that contain 1 Timothy 3:16. Just citing these manuscripts, or any other comparisons of numbers of manuscripts, has very little meaning except that one would wish to becloud the issue. If a thousand manuscripts have been copied from only one manuscript that contains an error, and only one manuscript is available that does not contain the error, the fact a thousand manuscripts have been copied with an error does not take away the fact that these thousand manuscripts do contain the error. http://www.bible-researcher.com/dogma.html http://www.bible-researcher.com/timothy.html http://www.bible-researcher.com/alexandrinus4.html It is claimed that the "os" ("he, he who, who") reading in the Classical Greek of Vaticanus and Sinaiticus sets up an impossibility in both Greek and English grammar, being a sentence with a subject and no predicate. What is being done is an attempt to discredit the manuscripts that have HOS by the argument that the masculine HOS does not match the neuter musteerion. Actually, however, one should not be attempting to match HOS with musterion, for the entire description, or "hymn", following is the musterion, not the word HOS in itself. It is a "hymn" of Christ's faithfulness to God. In verse 13, Paul stated: "For those who have served well as deacons gain to themselves a good standing, and great boldness in the faith which in Christ Jesus." He had earlier referred to the "the mystery [musteerion] of faith." (1 Timothy 3:9) He continues to explain why he has written these things, that "you may know how men ought to behave themselves in the house of God, which is the assembly (eclessia -- called out ones) of the living God, the pillar and ground of the truth." He is speaking about godliness in the church as a mystery to the world, but which godliness can be seen in Jesus, etc. The correspondence of musterion is not to the word HOS, but the all the rest of the lines in verse 16 that follow, with it understood that HOS refers to Christ Jesus who displayed this godliness. http://godandson.reslight.net/1tim3-16.html Christian love, Ronald http://godandson.reslight.net The Orthodox Corruption of Scripture: The Effect of Early Christological Controversies on the Text of the New Testament http://biblestore.reslight.net/item-0032.html 01:34 - Sunday, January 27, 2008 - comments {0} - post commentGenesis 1:26 - Who Was God Speaking To?Genesis 1:26 - God said, "Let us make man in our image."This verse is often quoted as proof of the trinity doctrine. The claim is that one person of God is speaking to another person of God. Of course, in reality, such a thought has to be added to and read into what is said, for there is nothing in the verses about three persons in Yahweh. Almighty Yahweh was evidently speaking to someone when He was creating man. Comparing spiritual revealment with spiritual revealment, we find that Yahweh was speaking to the prehuman Jesus, who acted as God’s agent in the creation of the world of mankind. “The world was made through him.” (John 1:10, World English Bible translation) The Greek word for "through" in John 1:3,10 indicates one being used as an agent, and is so acknowledged by most Greek scholars. More information may be found at: http://godandson.reslight.net/gen-1-26.html Related books: When Jesus Became God Jesus Was Not a Trinitarian 01:13 - Friday, January 18, 2008 - comments {0} - post commentThe "One Lord" FallacySome trinitarians will quote Deuteronomy 6:4 from the
King James Version (or similar translation) like this: "Hear, O
Israel: The LORD our God is one LORD." Then they will turn to 1 Corinthians 8:6,
where we read that to the church there is "one Lord Jesus Christ." There
is "one Lord", they say, and that "one Lord" is Jesus. Most scholars should know
that the two scriptures are not speaking of the same thing. In Deuteronomy 6:4,
the KJV, as well as many other translations have substituted "LORD" for the
divine name. This should not be done, and to those ignorant of the truth, the
above reasoning seems logical. Some will claim that the Greek word "kurios",
often rendered "the Lord" in the New Testament, means "Yahweh", since in the
extant Greek NT manuscripts we find that kurios is often substituted for the
divine name. Such is sophistry, however, for kurios is used of others than
Yahweh in the NT, as well as in other Greek writings.* The word "kurios" does
not mean "Yahweh", any more than the Hebrew words for "Lord", such as "adon" or
"adonai"**, mean "Yahweh". 1 Corinthians 8:6 is not identifying Jesus as the one
Yahweh of Deuteronomy 8:6. Likewise, sometimes our trinitarian neighbors will compare
Deuteronomy 6:4 and 1 Corinthians 6:8 with Zechariah 14:9, using the King
James Version, or a similar translation, to reach the conclusion that
the "one Lord" of these scriptures is Jesus. Zechariah 14:9, reads, according to
the King James Version, "And the LORD shall be king over all the
earth: in that day shall there be one LORD, and his name one." By use of the
word "LORD" in all caps, the KJV shows that in the Hebrew, the divine name
appears, and that "the LORD" has been substituted for the divine name. Thus the
World English Bible translation renders this verse in this manner: "Yahweh will
be King over all the earth. In that day Yahweh will be one, and his name one."
By this we can readily see that Zechariah 14:9 is not speaking about the Lord
Jesus, as in 1 Corinthians 8:6, but rather of Yahweh, the God and Father of
Jesus. Others will say that Yahweh is referred to as "Lord" many times in the Hebrew scriptures, such as Genesis 15:2,8, Exodus 4:10; 5:22; 15:17; 23:17; 24:17; Deuteronomy 3:24; 9:26; 10:17; Joshua 3:13; 7:7; and many more. Thus, they ask, how can only Jesus be the "one Lord", as stated in 1 Corinthians 8:6, if Yahweh is also "Lord"? Actually, 1 Corinthians 8:6 does not state that ther is only "one Lord". Let us read 1 Corinthians 8:5,6 from Young's Literal Translation: "for even if there are those called gods, whether in heaven, whether upon earth -- as there are gods many and lords many -- yet to us [is] one God, the Father, of whom [are] the all things, and we to Him; and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom [are] the all things, and we through Him." What it says is that "to us [to the church] there is one Lord "through whom are all things, and we through him." Yahweh is "Lord", but he is not the "one Lord" through whom are the all (Greek transliteration: ta panta). Thus to the church, God has appointed one Lord through whom all things are provided from the God and Father of Jesus to the church (as well as the blessings of the age to come), including the existence of the believers as new creatures in Christ. -- John 1:17; Romans 3:22; 5:10,21; 2 Corinthians 1:20; 5:17,18; Galatians 4:7; 6:15; Ephesians 1:5; 2:10; Philippians 1:11; Titus 3:6. Paul had just written concerning the idol-gods of the nations,
and declares that the informed Christian knows that the idols are nothing. It is
these that Paul refers to as those who are "called" gods. On earth, of course,
the idols are something in that the carved images are made of wood or stone, and
wood and stone is indeed "something", but as far as having the will and might to
bring about or influence events in the world to a purposeful outcome, these gods
are nothing. Thus, while they are "called" gods, they are not so by nature,
which nature is special "might, strength", power, as based on the Hebraic
meaning of the words that are translated as "God/god"*. (Galatians 4:8) They
have no special might of themselves to perform any prophecy, any purpose, that
might be attributed to them. In the heavens, the sun, the moon, stars and
constellations, etc., have been called "gods". The sun, the moon, the stars,
etc., are indeed something, as far as the substances that are combined in their
make-up is concerned. But they are nothing as far as the claim that these are
"gods", in that they do not have any will or might bring about any purposeful
outcome amongst the intelligent creation, they are "nothing". Yet these have
been called "gods" and "lords". The word Adonis comes from the Hebrew word
"Adon", meaning "Lord". Thus these are "called" gods and lords, although they
are not so by nature, as they, of themselves, cannot perform or accomplish any
will, prophecy, or purpose that might be attributed to them. Most are familiar
with the usage of the word "baal" (meaning "the Lord", "lord", or "the master")
and its usage regarding false gods. But Paul continues, "as there are gods many and lords many." The Westcott and Hort Interlinear has this as: "as even are gods many and lords many." Paul acknowledges that there are those who are "called" gods who have no might, no power, and yet he also goes on to acknowledge that there are indeed "many gods and many lords". Does the Bible speak of others than Yahweh as god or lord? Yes, it does. Moses was said to made a god -- a mighty one -- to Pharaoh. (Exodus 7:1) The judges of Israel were spoken of as the ELOHIM, the might (as a collective body), in Israel. (Exodus 21:6; 22:8,9,28 -- see Acts 23:5) The angels are spoken of as "gods" (elohim) in Psalm 82:6,7. (compare Hebrews 2:9; also Psalm 50:1 and 96:4.) The wicked spirit that impersonated Samuel is called elohim, a god, a mighty one. (1 Samuel 28:13) Various kings are referred to as "gods" -- "the strong" (KJV) -- in Ezekiel 32:21. All of these are indeed "gods", and while they have might, strength, power, they do not have such of their own being, but only as they have received such from the Might of the universe, Yahweh. Likewise, many are indeed "lords" in various capacities. The Hebrew word "adon", means "lord" or "master". This word is used of a master over slaves (Genesis 24:14,27), rulers (Genesis 45:8), and husbands. (Genesis 18:12) The original Hebrew text contained only consonants, and adon appears is represented by the four consonants: "aleph-dalet-vav/waw-nun", corresponding somewhat to our A-D-W-N. Some transliterate this as "'adown". Two other forms of adon are adoni (my Lord), and adonai, my Lords (plural), or a plural intensive -- the plural form used as a superlative -- of "my Lord") The form "adoni" ("my Lord") is represented by the Hebrew characters "aleph-dalet-nun-yod" (corresponding, roughly to the English characters ADNY. The Masoretes, in about the third century or later after Christ, added the vowel point roughly called "quamets" (sounds like the English "a" in the word "all") to form the word "adonai". They added this vowel point wherever they believed that the word referred to Yahweh, and not someone else. Where ADNY appeared to be referring to someone else than Yahweh, they added the vowel point roughly called "hireq", corresponding to the English letter "i" carrying the English short "i" sound, as in the word "machine". This is usually transliterated from the Masoretic text as "adoni". Once in a while someone will claim that, while "lord" in the Old Testament may be used of others than Yahweh, in the New Testament the word "kurios" is only used of Jesus and his Father. Let us examine to see if this is true. The Hebrew form adoni is used of Jesus in Psalm 110:1: "Yahweh says to my Lord [adoni], "Sit at my right hand, Until I make your enemies your footstool for your feet." This scripture is translated into the Greek as "kuriw [an inflection of kurios] mou" [literally, "lord of me"] in Matthew 22:44; Mark 12:36; Luke 20:42; and Acts 2:34, where it is applied to Jesus as David's Lord. Thus we can say that Kurios of the New Testament corresponds to the Hebrew word adown (and its variations). While there are several instances in the parables of Jesus that have the word "kurios" applied to master of a house, or the master of the workers, etc., some may claim that these instances actually apply the word indirectly to Jesus. It is interesting to note, however, that the King James Version renders kurios as "sir" in Matthew 21:30; John 4:11,15,19,49; 5:7; 12:21; as "master(s)" in Mark 12:35; Luke 14:21; 16:13; and as "owners" in Luke 19:33. In many of these instances, it is clear that the speaker is not addressing Jesus as "Yahweh", but simply as an address to a man. Nevertheless, in Matthew 27:63; Acts 17:16,19,30; Ephesians 6:5,9; Colossians 4:11, we have definite instances where the Greek word Kurios is used of others than God or Jesus. Thus it is indeed true that there are indeed "many lords", as stated in 1 Corinthians 8:6. None of these "lords", however, is the "one Lord" "through whom" the church receives all things, nor are the members of the church "through" any of these other lords. Paul further states: "yet to us [is] one God, the Father, of whom [are] the all things, and we to Him." Several words are usually added by translators to the Greek here, and Young's translation above shows two words added by the brackets []. However, it does not show that the word "things" is also added. The Westcott & Hort Interlinear has "ta panta" as "the all (things)", with the word "things" in parentheses, denoting that it is added to the rendering. The Greek phrase "ta panta" literally means "the all", pertaining to the church. The all that the church has is "of" or "from" the one God, the God and Father of Jesus. "The all" is "from" any of the other who are indeed "gods", and certainly not from any of the idols that are "called" "gods". The believer has offered himself "to" the God and Father of Jesus, through Jesus. -- Acts 20:32; Romans 5:10; 6:10,11; 12:1; 14:8; 2 Corinthians 2:15; 9:11; Galatians 2:19; Ephesians 5:20; Philippians 4:18; 1 Thessalonians 1:9; Hebrews 7:19,25; 11:6; 12:28; 13:15; James 4:7,8; 1 Peter 2:5; 3:18; 4:6. The scriptures identify the only true God -- the Supreme Being, the "might" of the universe -- as Yahweh, the God of Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, David, and the prophets. (Jeremiah 10:10; 42:5) Jesus identified the God he prayed to as the same God as that of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, and by stating that his Father is "the only true God" signified that there is only one true Supreme Being, one true Might of the universe. (Luke 20:37; John 8:54; 17:1,3) Who sent the prophets? None other than Yahweh, the Father of Jesus. (Judges 6:8; 1 Samuel 3:20; 1 Kings 16:12; 2 Kings 14:25; 17:3; 2 Chronicles 25:15; Jeremiah 28:12; 37:2,6; 46:1; Ezekiel 14:4; Hosea 12:13; Haggai 1:3,12; 2:1,10; Zechariah 1:1; Acts 3:8) It is this same Yahweh -- the only true God, the God and Father of Jesus -- who also sent Jesus. This same God is therefore the God and Father of Jesus. -- Matthew 23:39; Mark 11:9,10; Luke 13:35; John 3:2,17; 5:19,43; 6:57; 7:16,28; 8:26,28,38; 10:25; 12:49,50; 14:10; 15:15; 17:8,26; Hebrews 1:1,2; Revelation 1:1. Jesus is appointed as the one Lord of the church by Yahweh, the God of Jesus. There is one God, the Father, Yahweh, the God of Israel, who sent Jesus (John 17:1,3), and this one God has appointed for the church (as well as for the world regarding the age to come) one Lord, Jesus. -- Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Psalm 2:2,6,8; 45:7; Isaiah 9:7; 61:1; Matthew 28:18; Luke 1:32; John 3:35; 5:22,26,27,30; Acts 2:36; 5:31; 10:42; 17:31; Romans 14:9; 1 Corinthians 8:6; Colossians 1:18; Ephesians 1:17,20-22.
http://godandson.reslight.net/echad-one.html Christian love, Ronald 06:00 - Tuesday, October 10, 2006 - comments {0} - post commentJohn 10:30John 10:30 - I and the Father are one [Greek, HEN].John 17:22 - We are one [Greek, HEN] John 10:30 is often quoted or referred to as evidence that Jesus and his Father are one God, or one being (substance). However, if Jesus meant this to say that he and his Father are one God (THEOS), we are left with the question: Why did he use the Greek neuter HEN (one), rather than the masculine HEIS, which would be grammatically required in the Greek if he meant to say that he and his Father are one God? Additionally, if he meant to say that he and his Father are one being, as in the trinitarian expression, "treis hypostaseis en mia ousia", why did he not use the Greek feminine for "one", that is, MIA, since the Greek word OUSIA is feminine, not neuter? In John 17:22, in prayer to the only true God who sent him (John 17:1,3), Jesus made a similar statement: "We are one", again using the Greek word HEN, not HEIS or MIA. But if he meant that he and his Father are one God, why did in the context pray for his follower to be one [HEN], even and he and his Father are one [HEN]? And further why did he pray of his followers, "that they may be one [HEN], even as we are"? (John 17:11) Was he praying for his followers to be the one true God with him and his Father? Who did he identify as the only true God? (John 17:3) And why did he also pray concerning his followers: "that they may all be one; even as you, Father, are in me, and I in you, that they also may be one in us."? -- John 17:21. Those who have an ears to hear (Matthew 13:16) are invited to study this: http://godandson.reslight.net/john-10-30.html Yours in service Jesus and His God, Ronald 12:43 - Thursday, August 3, 2006 - comments {0} - post commentJohn 2:19-22
Many believe that this scripture is saying that Jesus raised himself from the dead. If we read it closely, however, we can see that Jesus did not say anything about raising himself from the dead, but he does refer to the raising of "the temple of his body." Jesus did, indeed, raise his body for the appearance to his disciples in the locked room, on the third day after his being put to death. (Luke 24:36-49; John 20:19,20) However, this was after he had been raised from the dead as a spirit being by his God and Father. -- Acts 2:24,32,26; 3:15; 4:10; 10:40; 13:30,33,37; 17:31; Romans 4:24; 8:11; 10:9; 1 Corinthians 6:14; 15:15; Galatians 1:1; Colossians 2:11,12; 1 Thessalonians 1:9,10; 1 Peter 1:21; 3:18. More on this can be found at: http://godandson.reslight.net/body-temple.html Christian love,Ronald 12:36 - Saturday, July 29, 2006 - comments {2} - post commentJohn 14:9The statement has been made that "Jesus said clearly that you see Him you see the father." The statement is true.However, evidently it is stated with the assumption that this means that Jesus is the God of Israel; yet nothing is presented as to how this would mean that Jesus is Yahweh, the God of Israel. Of course, Jesus' words do not mean that Jesus is his God, any more than they mean that Jesus is his Father, but that one could see the God and Father of the Lord Jesus in the life and sayings of Jesus. http://godandson.reslight.net/john-14-9.html Christian love, Ronald 09:25 - Wednesday, July 26, 2006 - comments {2} - post commentJesus and His GodMany do not think of Jesus as having a God, a Supreme Being who is superior to himself. It is generally believed amongst the Christian community that Jesus is the Supreme Being. However, God has revealed by means of his holy spirit through the scriptures that Yahweh (Jehovah) Himself is the only true God, the God and Father of the Lord Jesus. Jesus thus has One who is the Supreme Being over him; Jesus is not his Supreme Being whom he worships, prays to, and who sent him, and whose will he carried out in willful obedience. -- Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Matthew 4:4 (Deuteronomy 8:3; Luke 4:4); Matthew 4:7 (Deuteronomy 6:16); Matthew 4:10 (Exodus 20:3-5; 34:14; Deuteronomy 6:13,14; 10:20; Luke 4:8); Matthew 22:29-40; Matthew 26:42; Matthew 27:46; Mark 10:6 (Genesis 1:27; Genesis 2:7,20-23); Mark 14:36; 15:34; Luke 22:42; John 4:3; 5:30; 6:38; 17:1,3; 20:17; Romans 15:6; 2 Corinthians 1:3; 11:31; Ephesians 1:3,17; Hebrews 1:9; 10:7; 1 Peter 1:3; Revelation 2:7; 3:2,12.
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Christian love,
Ronald
10:37 - Saturday, July 22, 2006 - comments {1} - post comment |
Description The glory of Jesus and the relationship of Jesus with His God before coming to the earth, while on earth, after his resurrection, and after his ascension. The comments here should be related to the topic, or something that appears at this website: http://godandson.reslight.net Home User Profile Archives Friends Jesus and His God Web Site John 1:1-4 John 8:58 John 10:30 John 14:9 Jesus Was Not a Trinitarian Jesus and His God Forum Recent Entries - John 1:1 and the Trinitarian - Mystery of the Godhead? - 1 Timothy 3:16 - Genesis 1:26 - Who Was God Speaking To? - The "One Lord" Fallacy - John 10:30 - John 2:19-22 - John 14:9 - Jesus and His God |