Sunday, November 9, 2008 - John 6:45 |
John 6:45 - It is written in the prophets, 'They will all be taught by God.' Therefore everyone who hears from the Father, and has learned, comes to me.
Isaiah 54:13 - All your children shall be taught of Yahweh; and great shall be the peace of your children.
The World English translation is used throughout unless otherwise stated.
Since Jesus is spoken in the scriptures several times as a teacher, some have claimed that by Jesus' words recorded in John 6:45, Jesus is applying the prophecy of Isaiah 54:14 to himself, and that this is claimed to be one of the proofs that Jesus is Yahweh (Jehovah). In actuality, if we read Jesus' words carefully, we see that he is not applying the prophecy to himself. His own words as recorded in John 6:45 answers the false claim, since he applies to words of Isaiah 54:14 to his God and Father, when he says, "Therefore everyone who hears the Father, and has learned [from the Father] comes to me."
Jesus is our teacher, but he is so by the appointment of the only true God who sent him. (John 17:3) Rather than claiming, however, that he was Yahweh, Jesus plainly said: "My teaching is not mine, but his who sent me. If anyone desires to do his will, he will know of the teaching, whether it is from God, or if I speak from myself. He who speaks from himself seeks his own glory, but he who seeks the glory of him who sent him, the same is true, and no unrighteousness is in him." (John 7:16-18) "The word which you hear isn't mine, but the Father's who sent me." (John 14:24) Who sent Jesus? Isaiah prophetically quotes Jesus as saying: "Yahweh ... sent me." (Isaiah 61:1) Deuteronomy 18:15-22 states prophetically that Jesus was come in the name of Yahweh, and that he would speak the words of Yahweh, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. (Exodus 3:14,15) Furthermore, Jesus calls the One who sent him "the only true God." -- John 17:1,3.
As related in John 17:5, Jesus refers to a time when he was with the only true God before he became a human of flesh. Jesus had been with the only true God and learned from him before he became man, thus Jesus could say: "I say the things which I have seen with my Father." (John 8:38) Only Jesus had descended from heaven so as to be able to speak of heavenly things. (John 3:12,13) And Jesus says that he gave to his disciples the words of his God and Father, when in prayer to the only true God, saying: "The words which you have given me I have given to them." (John 17:8) "I have given them your word." -- John 17:14.
Likewise Jesus, the great pastor of the flock, appointed special teachers under him, the apostles; and still others in the church to be teachers and under-shepherds of Yahweh's flock, instructing them, "Feed my sheep" (John 21:17); "feed my lambs." (John 21:15) "Take heed therefore to yourselves and to all the flock, over which the Holy Spirit has appointed you overseers, to feed the church of Christ which he has purchased with his blood.." (Acts 20:28, Lamsa) Yet none of these teachers were to teach doctrines of their own, which could be only "wisdom of this world." (1 Corinthians 1:20) The people of God were to be all taught by Yahweh, and none can be true teachers save as they present to men the words and plan and character of Yahweh as the standards of truth and excellence. In doing this they necessarily call attention to 'the teachings of Christ' and 'the apostle's teachings,' all of which were but expressions and inculcations of the Father's grand and eternal law.
Moreover, Yahweh showed through the prophets that Jesus, the great pastor appointed by the Master Teacher, Yahweh (Ezekiel 34:23), would be himself taught of Yahweh; and in order "that he might become a merciful and faithful high priest" to humanity in "things pertaining to God [Yahweh]," and be proved worthy to be "the captain of our salvation," (Hebrews 2:17, King James Vrsion) it was needful that he be perfected in experiences through things which he suffered. (Hebrews 2:9,10) Note how clearly the following prophecies declared long before that our Lord would be taught by Yahweh, and would learn well the lessons, and manifest love for the law and obedience to the Law-giver:
The Lord Yahweh has given me the tongue of those who are taught, that I may know how to sustain with words him who is weary: he wakens morning by morning, he wakens my ear to hear as those who are taught. The Lord Yahweh has opened my ear, and I was not rebellious, neither turned away backward. gave my back to the strikers, and my cheeks to those who plucked off the hair; I didn't hide my face from shame and spitting." -- Isaiah 50:4-10; Matthew 26:67; 27:26,30; Isaiah 53:11
Hear further on this subject the word of Yahweh's testimony respecting the preparation of our Lord Jesus for the grand office of high priest for mankind:
"The Spirit of Yahweh shall rest on him, the spirit of wisdom and understanding, the spirit of counsel and might, the spirit of knowledge and of the fear [reverence] of Yahweh. His delight shall be in the fear of Yahweh; and he shall not judge after the sight of his eyes, neither decide after the hearing of his ears." and shall make him of quick understanding in the fear [reverence] of Jehovah: so that he shall not judge after the sight of his eyes"; for he has been touched with a feeling of our infirmities and is therefore the better able to succor all who come to Yahweh through him -- his church now, and by and by the world, during his Millennial Kingdom. -- Isaiah 11:1-10; Hebrews 2:18
Again prophetically Messiah is represented as saying: "I will bless Yahweh, who has given me counsel." (Psalm 16:7) "You will show me the path of life." (Psalm 16:11) These expressions occur in connections quoted by the apostles as applicable to our great pastor, Jesus. (Psalm 16:7-11; Acts 2:25-31; 13:35-38) Thus is confirmed by prophecy the statement of the Evangelist, "The child grew, and grew strong in spirit, filled with wisdom, and the grace of God was on him. Jesus advanced in wisdom and stature, and in favor with God and men." -- Luke 2:40,52.
Jesus, however, faithfully carried out the will of his God and Father, and thus Yahweh does instruct us through His son, who in, turn sent God's holy spirit to help his apostles to instruct us. Thus, the entire New Testament are the teachings from Yahweh given through Jesus and the apostles. This does not mean that the son of Yahweh is Yahweh Himself.
Related Books
Please note that I do not necessarily agree with all that is stated in these books. -- Ronald
The Doctrine of the Trinity: Christianity's Self-Inflicted Wound -- Presents unitarian viewpoint; denies the prehuman existence of Jesus, but otherwise, the book contains a lot of good information.
When Jesus Became God -- Gives a lot of historical background.
The Orthodox Corruption of Scripture - The Effect of Early Christological Controversies
on the Text of the New Testament
Concepts of Father, Son, and Holy Spirit - A Classification and Description of the Trinitarian and Non-Trinitarian Theologies Existent Within Christendom
One God & One Lord : Reconsidering the Cornerstone of the Christian Faith
Truth in Translation: Accuracy and Bias in English Translations of the New Testament
The Father and the Son: Is Jesus God?
Divine Truth or Human Tradition A Reconsideration of the Roman Catholic-Protestant Doctrine of the Trinity in Light of the Hebrew and Christian Scriptures
Jesus Was Not a Trinitarian
The Trinity's Weak Links Revealed A chain is only as strong as its weakest link. |
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Saturday, June 7, 2008 - John 1:1 and the Trinitarian |
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God [TON THEON], and the Word was God [THEOS]. The same was in the beginning with God [TON THEON]. -- John 1:1,2, World English - transliterations from the Westcott & Hort Interlinear.
John 1:1 is often given to us by trinitarians as proof of their trinitarian dogma. However, even amongst trinitarian scholars there appears to be some disagreement as to how or in what way John's statement in John 1:1 should be applied
Most trinitarians will tell us that Jesus is not "TON THEON" whom he was, but that, in some way, both TON THEON and the LOGOS are to be considered as the "one true God." Therefore, In order to get trinity out of John 1:1, the trinitarian has to suppose, add to and read into the verse several things: (1) that two persons of the trinity-god are being spoken of here, and (2) that TON THEON whom the Logos was with is the their alleged "first person" of the trinity, and (3) that THEOS applied to the Word is their alleged "second person" of the trinity. Then, (4) they need to add to these assumptions that these two alleged persons of their trinity are both the same one true God. Rather than assuming and adding such to the scriptures, it is best to simply let the scriptures have their own say, applying spiritual revealment with spiritual revealment. -- 1 Corinthians 2:10,13.
The word THEOS is being applied to the LOGOS in John 1:1, but this does not mean that John was saying that Jesus was the only true God whom the LOGOS was with, as it should be apparent since twice John states that the LOGOS was with God. Jesus lets us know that One whom he was with before the world was made was "the only true God" (John 17:1,3,5); therefore, the scriptures make it plain that John is not saying that the Logos was the only true God whom the Logos was with. Thus, the term THEOS as applied to the Logos should be applied with the general meaning of the Hebraic words for deity/divinity (form of EL, ELOHIM), that is, of strength, power, might.
While most translations render "kai theos een ho logos" as "the Word was God," Moffat renders this phrase as ""the Word was divine." Julius Mantey declares that the phrase means "the Word was deity." We should have no objection to rendering theos as divine or deity, if one applies the terms divine and deity with the general meaning of strength, might, power, rather than as Supreme Being -- the Might of the Universe. James Parkinson, in his footnote of the American Revised Version Improved and Corrected, suggests "mighty was the Word." This would be the better rendering, or a rendering such as "the Word was mighty," both of which would distinguish the Word from the only true God whom the Logos was with. This would be in agreement with the rest of the scriptures, where the words for deity / divinity are applied to persons (and even things) who are not Yahweh in a general sense of might, power or strength.
The best point to begin with to show this usage is with John 10:34,35, where Jesus quotes/references Psalms 82:1,6, where both forms of the Hebrew word EL and ELOHIM are applied the sons of the Most High, the sons to whom the Logos came (as Jesus explained). In John 10:34,35, the word ELOHIM is rendered as THEOI, the plural of THEOS. According the King James Version, God [ELOHIM] standeth in the congregation of the mighty [EL]. (Psalm 82:1) In reference to the sons of the Most High, the KJV renders the term EL as "the mighty." I believe that the KJV is correct in this rendering. Applying this scriptural principle to THEOS in John 1:1, we would likewise have "the Logos was mighty."
Of course, this is not the only place that the KJV renders forms of the words EL (Strong's Hebrew #410) and ELOHIM (Strong's Hebrew #430) with terms showing mightiness or strength. Here are a few scriptures, with the rendering of EL or ELOHIM given in parenthesis: Genesis 23:6 (mighty); Genesis 30:8 (mighty); Genesis 31:29 (power); Deuteronomy 28:32 (might); 1 Samuel 14:15 (great); Nehemiah 5:5 (power); Psalm 8:5 (angels); Psalm 36:6 (great); Proverbs 3:27 (power); Psalm 29:1 (mighty); Ezekiel 32:21 (strong); Jonah 3:3 (exceeding). The point is the King James translators, in all these verses, did not render the word for deity/divinity [EL] as "God" or as "god", but with terms of might, strength, great, power and might.
All of the spirit beings, by "nature" of the superior might given to them by the Almighty are scripturally designated as el or elohim, and thus can be spoken of as divine -- mighty -- in being. -- Psalm 8:5 (compare Hebrews 2:9; also Psalm 50:1 and 96:4 could be speaking of angels as elohim); 45:6,7; Isaiah 9:6,7; John 1:1,2; Acts 2:33; 5:31; Ephesians 1:20,22; Philippians 2:9-11; Hebrews 1:2-4,8; 1 Peter 1:21; 3:22.
Likewise, the firstborn creature (Colossians 1:15), who existed before all the creation that was created by means of him (Colossians 1:17), can certainly also have the term theos applied to him without meaning that he is the only true God who sent him. Indeed, before he became a man, he "was" a mighty spirit being, having a heavenly glory that he did not possess while he was a human. -- John 17:5; 1 Corinthians 15:40.
Christian love,
Ronald |
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Sunday, January 27, 2008 - Mystery of the Godhead? - 1 Timothy 3:16 |
Trinitarians, as well as oneness believers, and some others, often speak of the "mystery of the Godhead". They cite 1 Timothy 3:16 as declaring such a mystery. (http://tinyurl.com/yotz92) It seems that many of them read the expression "mystery of godliness" so though it says "mystery of the Godhead." In actuality, there is nothing at all in 1 Timothy 3:16 about "godhead" or "trinity". While we do find a mystery being spoken of, we do not find anything there, or anywhere else in the Bible, about a mystery of a trinity, or a mystery of "the godhead".
1 Timothy 3:16 - By common confession, great is the mystery of godliness: He who was revealed in the flesh, Was vindicated in the Spirit, Seen by angels, Proclaimed among the nations, Believed on in the world, Taken up in glory. -- New American Standard.
Or, KJV: without controversy great is the mystery of godliness; RHM: confessedly great is the sacred secret of godliness; WMS: the mystery of our religion is a great wonder; NEB: great beyond all question is the mystery of our religion; GDS: no one can deny the profundity of the divine truth of; NWT: godly devotion; BAR: the greatness of the truth of our religion. The Greek often translated "religion" is EU-SEBEIAS [Strong's Concordance #2150, well-reverent]. Dictionary of New Testament Theology [Colin Brown], Volume 2, page 91, comments on the root meaning of this word: "The root seb- meant originally to step back from someone or something, to maintain a distance…developed the metamorphical idea of trepidation ranging from shame, through wonder, to something approaching fear." Thus, this awe [wonder/fear] inspires worship of the Creator which some call religion. The Greek for "mystery" is MYSTERION [Strong's Concordance #3466].
As mentioned, while the word "mystery" is in 1 Timothy 3:16, there is nothing in this scripture that says anything about this "mystery" being that Jesus has two states of glory at once, or that Jesus is Yahweh; such ideas have to be added to and read into what is stated.
Let us examine closer the Greek word translated "mystery" and its meaning:
Musterion
hidden thing, secret, mystery
generally mysteries, religious secrets, confided only to the initiated and not to ordinary mortals
a hidden or secret thing, not obvious to the understanding
a hidden purpose or counsel
secret will 1c
of men 1c
of God: the secret counsels which govern God in dealing with the righteous, which are hidden from ungodly and wicked men but plain to the godly
in rabbinic writings, it denotes the mystic or hidden sense
of an OT saying
of an image or form seen in a vision
of a dream
Thayer and Smith. "Greek Lexicon entry for Musterion". "The NAS New Testament Greek Lexicon".
http://www.biblestudytools.net/Lexicons/Greek/grk.cgi?number=3466&version=nas. 1999.
What is this mystery in 1 Timothy 3:16? Doesn't Paul say it is "the mystery of godliness"? So our next question is: What does "godliness" mean?
The Greek word "godliness" is transliterated as "Eusebeia" which means "reverence, respect, piety toward God."
Thayer and Smith. "Greek Lexicon entry for Eusebeia". "The KJV New Testament Greek Lexicon".
http://www.biblestudytools.net/Lexicons/Greek/grk.cgi?number=2150.
Since this is something that is done "toward God", the question arises: Is Paul, then, speaking of God's own godliness (reverence, respect, piety) toward himself as a mystery?
Obviously, it is speaking of someone else's reverence toward God, not of God's reverence toward Himself. What we can be certain of is that the "mystery" spoken of is not an alleged "mystery" of a trinity, of a godhead expressed in three modes (oneness doctrine). The word translated "godliness" has to do with the manner of worship, not of a duality of natures of Jesus in the flesh (one sentient being who omniscient, and another sentient being who is not ominsicent?). The latter idea has to be twisted into the scripture.
Whose godliness toward God is spoken of as a mystery? 1 Timothy 3:16 then tells of Christ "Who (as in the oldest Greek Siniatic MS text -- not "God") was manifest [Phaneroo] in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory."
The Greek word *Phareroo* means:
to make manifest or visible or known what has been hidden or unknown, to manifest, whether by words, or deeds, or in any other way make actual and visible, realised to make known by teaching to become manifest, be made known of a person expose to view, make manifest, to show one's self, appear to become known, to be plainly recognised, thoroughly understood
who and what one is
Thayer and Smith. "Greek Lexicon entry for Phaneroo". "The NAS New Testament Greek Lexicon". http://www.biblestudytools.net/Lexicons/Greek/grk.cgi?number=5319&version=nas. 1999.
So, then is this mystery of godliness understood by anyone? It should be apparent that this "mystery" was understood by some, and yet it is a mystery -- not understood -- to others.
Who is this mystery of godliness, of piety toward God, concerning? None other than the one spoken in the following words: the one who was revealed in the flesh, vindicated in the spirit, seen by angels, who was proclaimed among the nations, etc. That is, the Messiah, Jesus, the Son of the living God.
Why is the mystery so great? Because, through the full and total obedience of Jesus, life and incorruption (Greek, Aphtharsia) has been brought to light for mankind. (2 Timothy 1:10) Jesus never once disobeyed his God, nor once did he do other than what pleased his God. By his obedience, unlike Adam, Jesus brought life and incorruption to light.
What has God revealed through his scriptures concerning this mystery of godliness? This glorious One, as a human, never fell short of the glory of God by sin. (Romans 3:23) Unlike Adam and the sinful flesh produced from Adam, he fully had the crown of glory as a human, and kept the crown untainted by sin. (Hebrews 2:9) He gave up the glory of humanity, in order to provide a sacrifice for Adam and the dying race in Adam, that he might taste death for every man. Although now of a different plane of glory than he had while on earth (John 17:5; 1 Corinthians 15:40; Hebrews 2:9), he is the same one who, while on earth, was the Man Christ Jesus, a man of sorrows and acquainted with grief. (Isaiah 53:3) Jesus spoke of the glory he had before the world was made, which glory he did not have while on earth. (John 17:5) Paul tells us how Jesus left the heavenly glory, how He humbled Himself to take a bondman's form -- to take the same form of bondage as humanity had come into bondage due to sin. (Philippians 2:7,8) Jesus was not a "God-man". He was completely and totally that which the Bible claims that he was, a human being, nothing more, nothing less, "a little lower than the angels," except that the Bible reveals that his body of flesh was prepared by his God, so that his flesh was not tainted with Adamic sinful flesh. Thus he had been given a body which could be offered in sacrifice for the sinful, dying world. (Luke 22:19; John 6:51; Hebrews 10:5,10) Additionally, unlike Adam, Jesus had been with his God and Father long before the world of mankind was made (John 17:5), so that he was amply taught (John 8:28), prepared, sanctified, before the only true God sent him into the world of mankind. (John 10:36; 17:1,3) Having fully kept the law of God up until the age of 30, he was approved by his God and Father as acceptable as the atoning sacrifice for the sin of the world. (Matthew 3:15-17; Mark 1:11; Luke 3:22; John 1:29; Romans 3:25; 1 John 2:2; 4:10) Having no sin, and having proven himself fully obedient, Jesus was given unlimited access to the holy spirit of his God. -- John 3:34; Matthew 12:28.
How was Jesus justified in the spirit? Jesus had no need to be justified from sin, for he was without sin. Jesus was, however, proved right, proved to be without sin, in the spirit when he was tried, even until his death. He proved to be whom he claimed, to be, the Messiah, the one without spot, without sin. His spirit of obedience never failed. Nevertheless, Paul could have been referring to Jesus' being raised "in the spirit". The matter was set straight, in other words -- not yet to unbelieving world, but before the angels -- he was "seen of angels" -- and he was justified before believers on the earth.
Jesus was "preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world". The world of mankind in general has never believed on Jesus. To them all of this is still a mystery, for it has not become apparent -- it has not been revealed to their understanding -- exactly who Jesus was and is. Additionally, because of compromise -- a falling away from the true faith, God has sent his people [by allowing Satan to do his work] a strong delusion, which has furthered muddled an understanding of who Jesus is, so that even many who profess Christ have not truly understood. -- 2 Thessalonians 2:3-11.
http://godandson.reslight.net/jesusnotyhwh.html
http://studies.reslight.net/mysteries.html
Could the mystery be understood? By whom? Jesus was believed on "in the world". The mystery was and is understood by many true believers that Jesus was indeed the one who was without sin, the man who died to correspond to Adam (Romans 5:15-19; 1 Corinthians 15:21,22; 1 Timothy 2:5,6); the one who was sent by the only true God to provide the ransom sacrifice, the propitiation, the atoning sacrifice for sin. (John 17:1,3; Romans 3:25; 1 John 2:2; 4:10) These believers are "in the world" but not "of the world". -- John 17:11,16.
Jesus was received into glory; not the human glory that he had sacrificed , but the glory of a celestial, heavenly, spiritual body. -- 1 Corinthians 15:40,44.
http://atonement.reslight.net/raisedspirit.html
This is our confession of godliness, which is great, for we cannot have any basis for godliness on our part without the one sent by the only true God.
Writings by others:
http://tinyurl.com/qwbbd
The claim is made by one that there are 262 out of 264 manuscripts in Greek that testify to the word "God" being the correct reading of 1 Timothy 3:16.
1 Timothy 3:16
kai homologoumenws mega estin to tees eusebeias
AND CONFESSEDLY GREAT IS THE OF THE REVERING WELL
2532 3672 3173 1510_2 3588 3588 2150
musteerion hos ephanerwthee en sarki edikaiwthee
MYSTERY; WHO WAS MANIFESTED IN FLESH, WAS JUSTIFIED
3466 3739 5319 1722 4561 1344
en pneumati wphthee aggelois ekeeruchthee en
IN SPIRIT, WAS SEEN TO ANGELS, WAS PREACHED IN
1722 4151 3708 0032 2784 1722
ethnesin episteuthee en kosmw aneleemphthee en
NATIONS, WAS BELIEVED IN WORLD, WAS TAKEN UP IN
1484 4100 1722 2889 0353 1722
doxee
GLORY.
1391
Westcott & Hort Interlinear
1 Timothy 3:16 reads, in part:
hOS EFANERWQH EN SARKI
EDIKAIWQH EN PNEUMATI
WFQH AGGELOIS
EKHRUCQH EN EQNESIN
EPISTEUQH EN KOSMW
ANELHMFQH EN DOXH
from:
http://tinyurl.com/op6az
While I highly doubt that Paul wrote "God" in this verse, even so, one still has to read into the verse what trinitarians claim, that it is speaking of a duality of being of Jesus, or that Jesus is Yahweh.
Many refer to the above as a "hymn".
The World English, based on the Textus Receptus, reads: Without controversy, the mystery of godliness is great: God was revealed in the flesh, Justified in the spirit, Seen by angels, Preached among the nations, Believed on in the world, And received up in glory.
God was indeed made manifest, was revealed, in his Son in the flesh, but not to the entire world, but only "to whoever the Son wants to reveal him". (Matthew 11:27) 1 Timothy 3:16, as it reads in the Textus Receptus, does not say that Jesus was "God in the flesh", as some often misquote what is said in the KJV and some other translations of 1 Timothy 3:16. What it says is "God was revealed in the flesh." Jesus, having descending from his God and Father from heaven, knew his God. (John 3:13) Not only this, Jesus maintained piety toward His God and Father in perfect fidelity to the glory of his God and Father. Jesus did not at all fall short of the glory of God, as did Adam. -- Matthew 11:27; Luke 10:22; John 1:18; 14:6-9; 17:3,6,8,21,23,26.
God was justified -- proven righteous -- in Christ's spirit of obedience, proving that God's just laws and commands for man are not unjust, by which Jesus condemned sin in the flesh, and yet, through the ransom sacrifice of Jesus, God is the justifier of the sinner. -- Romans 3:25,26; 8:3.
http://atonement.reslight.net/c-s.html
God was seen in Jesus by the angels. -- Matthew 4:11; 26:53; Mark 1:13; Luke 8:1; John 1:51.
God was preached amongst Israel and the Gentiles through the preaching of and about His Son. -- Luke 4:43; 9:2; Mark 1:14; Luke 4:18,19,43; 8:1; 9:2; Acts 8:12; 10:42; 20:25; 28:31; Romans 15:19; 1 Corinthian 1:21; Galatians 2:2.
God was being believed in among the Gentiles (as well as in Israel) through their faith in His Son, and his sacrifice for sin. -- Mark 1:15; John 1:12; 3:16,17; Romans 5:8; 2 Corinthians 5:19-20; Titus 3:4-6; 1 John 1:3; 2:23; 4:9,10,19
God, as seen in his Son, was received in glory, by which the God and Father of Jesus was glorified in His Son. -- John 12:28; 17:1; Acts 2:24-36; Romans 6:4; 15:6; Ephesians 1:17,20; Philippians 4:19,20; 1 Peter 1:3.
None of this means that Jesus is the only true God, Yahweh, who sent Jesus. -- Isaiah 61:1; John 17:1,3.
Additionally, the mystery being spoken of is not God's piety to himself, but mostly about His Son's piety toward his God in Jesus' perfect obedience and reflection of God's glory. As God is in Jesus, the believer is in Jesus, and Jesus and God are in the believer (John 10:38; 14:10,20; Romans 8:1,2; 12:5; 1 Corinthians 1:30; 3:1; 2 Corinthians 1:21; 5:17,19; 12:19; Galatians 2:4; 3:28), and Jesus prayed "that they may all be one; even as you, Father, are in me, and I in you, that they also may be one in us; that the world may believe that you sent me." (John 17:21, see also John 17:23) All of this pertains to the secret of piety that Paul was speaking about.
Thus whether Paul actually used the word THEOS or HOS or HO does not really matter.
The 264 manuscripts being referred to above are evidently the "cursive" copies of Paul's letters that contain 1 Timothy 3:16. Just citing these manuscripts, or any other comparisons of numbers of manuscripts, has very little meaning except that one would wish to becloud the issue. If a thousand manuscripts have been copied from only one manuscript that contains an error, and only one manuscript is available that does not contain the error, the fact a thousand manuscripts have been copied with an error does not take away the fact that these thousand manuscripts do contain the error.
http://www.bible-researcher.com/dogma.html
http://www.bible-researcher.com/timothy.html
http://www.bible-researcher.com/alexandrinus4.html
It is claimed that the "os" ("he, he who, who") reading in the Classical Greek of Vaticanus and Sinaiticus sets up an impossibility in both Greek and English grammar, being a sentence with a subject and no predicate.
What is being done is an attempt to discredit the manuscripts that have HOS by the argument that the masculine HOS does not match the neuter musteerion.
Actually, however, one should not be attempting to match HOS with musterion, for the entire description, or "hymn", following is the musterion, not the word HOS in itself. It is a "hymn" of Christ's faithfulness to God. In verse 13, Paul stated: "For those who have served well as deacons gain to themselves a good standing, and great boldness in the faith which in Christ Jesus." He had earlier referred to the "the mystery [musteerion] of faith." (1 Timothy 3:9) He continues to explain why he has written these things, that "you may know how men ought to behave themselves in the house of God, which is the assembly (eclessia -- called out ones) of the living God, the pillar and ground of the truth." He is speaking about godliness in the church as a mystery to the world, but which godliness can be seen in Jesus, etc. The correspondence of musterion is not to the word HOS, but the all the rest of the lines in verse 16 that follow, with it understood that HOS refers to Christ Jesus who displayed this godliness.
http://godandson.reslight.net/1tim3-16.html
Christian love,
Ronald
http://godandson.reslight.net
The Orthodox Corruption of Scripture:
The Effect of Early Christological Controversies
on the Text of the New Testament
http://biblestore.reslight.net/item-0032.html |
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Friday, January 18, 2008 - Genesis 1:26 - Who Was God Speaking To? |
Genesis 1:26 - God said, "Let us make man in our image."
This verse is often quoted as proof of the trinity doctrine. The claim is that one person of God is speaking to another person of God. Of course, in reality, such a thought has to be added to and read into what is said, for there is nothing in the verses about three persons in Yahweh.
Almighty Yahweh was evidently speaking to someone when He was creating man. Comparing spiritual revealment with spiritual revealment, we find that Yahweh was speaking to the prehuman Jesus, who acted as God’s agent in the creation of the world of mankind. “The world was made through him.” (John 1:10, World English Bible translation) The Greek word for "through" in John 1:3,10 indicates one being used as an agent, and is so acknowledged by most Greek scholars.
More information may be found at:
http://godandson.reslight.net/gen-1-26.html
Related books:
When Jesus Became God
Jesus Was Not a Trinitarian
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Thursday, August 3, 2006 - John 10:30 |
John 10:30 - I and the Father are one [Greek, HEN].
John 17:22 - We are one [Greek, HEN]
John 10:30 is often quoted or referred to as evidence that Jesus and his Father are one God, or one being (substance). However, if Jesus meant this to say that he and his Father are one God (THEOS), we are left with the question: Why did he use the Greek neuter HEN (one), rather than the masculine HEIS, which would be grammatically required in the Greek if he meant to say that he and his Father are one God? Additionally, if he meant to say that he and his Father are one being, as in the trinitarian expression, "treis hypostaseis en mia ousia", why did he not use the Greek feminine for "one", that is, MIA, since the Greek word OUSIA is feminine, not neuter?
In John 17:22, in prayer to the only true God who sent him (John 17:1,3), Jesus made a similar statement: "We are one", again using the Greek word HEN, not HEIS or MIA. But if he meant that he and his Father are one God, why did in the context pray for his follower to be one [HEN], even and he and his Father are one [HEN]? And further why did he pray of his followers, "that they may be one [HEN], even as we are"? (John 17:11) Was he praying for his followers to be the one true God with him and his Father? Who did he identify as the only true God? (John 17:3) And why did he also pray concerning his followers: "that they may all be one; even as you, Father, are in me, and I in you, that they also may be one in us."? -- John 17:21.
Those who have an ears to hear (Matthew 13:16) are invited to study this:
http://godandson.reslight.net/john-10-30.html
Yours in service Jesus and His God,
Ronald
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Saturday, July 29, 2006 - John 2:19-22 |
John 2:19 - Jesus answered them, "Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up."
John 2:20 - The Jews therefore said, "Forty-six years was this temple in building, and will you raise it up in three days?"
John 2:21 - But he spoke of the temple of his body.
John 2:22 - When therefore he was raised from the dead, his disciples remembered that he said this, and they believed the Scripture, and the word which Jesus had said.
Many believe that this scripture is saying that Jesus raised himself from the dead. If we read it closely, however, we can see that Jesus did not say anything about raising himself from the dead, but he does refer to the raising of "the temple of his body." Jesus did, indeed, raise his body for the appearance to his disciples in the locked room, on the third day after his being put to death. (Luke 24:36-49; John 20:19,20) However, this was after he had been raised from the dead as a spirit being by his God and Father. -- Acts 2:24,32,26; 3:15; 4:10; 10:40; 13:30,33,37; 17:31; Romans 4:24; 8:11; 10:9; 1 Corinthians 6:14; 15:15; Galatians 1:1; Colossians 2:11,12; 1 Thessalonians 1:9,10; 1 Peter 1:21; 3:18.
More on this can be found at:
http://godandson.reslight.net/body-temple.html
Christian love,Ronald |
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Wednesday, July 26, 2006 - John 14:9 |
The statement has been made that "Jesus said clearly that you see Him you see the father." The statement is true.
However, evidently it is stated with the assumption that this means that Jesus is the God of Israel; yet nothing is presented as to how this would mean that Jesus is Yahweh, the God of Israel.
Of course, Jesus' words do not mean that Jesus is his God, any more than they mean that Jesus is his Father, but that one could see the God and Father of the Lord Jesus in the life and sayings of Jesus.
http://godandson.reslight.net/john-14-9.html
Christian love,
Ronald |
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The glory of Jesus and the relationship of Jesus with His God before coming to the earth, while on earth, after his resurrection, and after his ascension. The comments here should be related to the topic, or something that appears at this website:
http://godandson.reslight.net
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