Sunday, November 9, 2008 - John 6:45 |
John 6:45 - It is written in the prophets, 'They will all be taught by God.' Therefore everyone who hears from the Father, and has learned, comes to me.
Isaiah 54:13 - All your children shall be taught of Yahweh; and great shall be the peace of your children.
The World English translation is used throughout unless otherwise stated.
Since Jesus is spoken in the scriptures several times as a teacher, some have claimed that by Jesus' words recorded in John 6:45, Jesus is applying the prophecy of Isaiah 54:14 to himself, and that this is claimed to be one of the proofs that Jesus is Yahweh (Jehovah). In actuality, if we read Jesus' words carefully, we see that he is not applying the prophecy to himself. His own words as recorded in John 6:45 answers the false claim, since he applies to words of Isaiah 54:14 to his God and Father, when he says, "Therefore everyone who hears the Father, and has learned [from the Father] comes to me."
Jesus is our teacher, but he is so by the appointment of the only true God who sent him. (John 17:3) Rather than claiming, however, that he was Yahweh, Jesus plainly said: "My teaching is not mine, but his who sent me. If anyone desires to do his will, he will know of the teaching, whether it is from God, or if I speak from myself. He who speaks from himself seeks his own glory, but he who seeks the glory of him who sent him, the same is true, and no unrighteousness is in him." (John 7:16-18) "The word which you hear isn't mine, but the Father's who sent me." (John 14:24) Who sent Jesus? Isaiah prophetically quotes Jesus as saying: "Yahweh ... sent me." (Isaiah 61:1) Deuteronomy 18:15-22 states prophetically that Jesus was come in the name of Yahweh, and that he would speak the words of Yahweh, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. (Exodus 3:14,15) Furthermore, Jesus calls the One who sent him "the only true God." -- John 17:1,3.
As related in John 17:5, Jesus refers to a time when he was with the only true God before he became a human of flesh. Jesus had been with the only true God and learned from him before he became man, thus Jesus could say: "I say the things which I have seen with my Father." (John 8:38) Only Jesus had descended from heaven so as to be able to speak of heavenly things. (John 3:12,13) And Jesus says that he gave to his disciples the words of his God and Father, when in prayer to the only true God, saying: "The words which you have given me I have given to them." (John 17:8) "I have given them your word." -- John 17:14.
Likewise Jesus, the great pastor of the flock, appointed special teachers under him, the apostles; and still others in the church to be teachers and under-shepherds of Yahweh's flock, instructing them, "Feed my sheep" (John 21:17); "feed my lambs." (John 21:15) "Take heed therefore to yourselves and to all the flock, over which the Holy Spirit has appointed you overseers, to feed the church of Christ which he has purchased with his blood.." (Acts 20:28, Lamsa) Yet none of these teachers were to teach doctrines of their own, which could be only "wisdom of this world." (1 Corinthians 1:20) The people of God were to be all taught by Yahweh, and none can be true teachers save as they present to men the words and plan and character of Yahweh as the standards of truth and excellence. In doing this they necessarily call attention to 'the teachings of Christ' and 'the apostle's teachings,' all of which were but expressions and inculcations of the Father's grand and eternal law.
Moreover, Yahweh showed through the prophets that Jesus, the great pastor appointed by the Master Teacher, Yahweh (Ezekiel 34:23), would be himself taught of Yahweh; and in order "that he might become a merciful and faithful high priest" to humanity in "things pertaining to God [Yahweh]," and be proved worthy to be "the captain of our salvation," (Hebrews 2:17, King James Vrsion) it was needful that he be perfected in experiences through things which he suffered. (Hebrews 2:9,10) Note how clearly the following prophecies declared long before that our Lord would be taught by Yahweh, and would learn well the lessons, and manifest love for the law and obedience to the Law-giver:
The Lord Yahweh has given me the tongue of those who are taught, that I may know how to sustain with words him who is weary: he wakens morning by morning, he wakens my ear to hear as those who are taught. The Lord Yahweh has opened my ear, and I was not rebellious, neither turned away backward. gave my back to the strikers, and my cheeks to those who plucked off the hair; I didn't hide my face from shame and spitting." -- Isaiah 50:4-10; Matthew 26:67; 27:26,30; Isaiah 53:11
Hear further on this subject the word of Yahweh's testimony respecting the preparation of our Lord Jesus for the grand office of high priest for mankind:
"The Spirit of Yahweh shall rest on him, the spirit of wisdom and understanding, the spirit of counsel and might, the spirit of knowledge and of the fear [reverence] of Yahweh. His delight shall be in the fear of Yahweh; and he shall not judge after the sight of his eyes, neither decide after the hearing of his ears." and shall make him of quick understanding in the fear [reverence] of Jehovah: so that he shall not judge after the sight of his eyes"; for he has been touched with a feeling of our infirmities and is therefore the better able to succor all who come to Yahweh through him -- his church now, and by and by the world, during his Millennial Kingdom. -- Isaiah 11:1-10; Hebrews 2:18
Again prophetically Messiah is represented as saying: "I will bless Yahweh, who has given me counsel." (Psalm 16:7) "You will show me the path of life." (Psalm 16:11) These expressions occur in connections quoted by the apostles as applicable to our great pastor, Jesus. (Psalm 16:7-11; Acts 2:25-31; 13:35-38) Thus is confirmed by prophecy the statement of the Evangelist, "The child grew, and grew strong in spirit, filled with wisdom, and the grace of God was on him. Jesus advanced in wisdom and stature, and in favor with God and men." -- Luke 2:40,52.
Jesus, however, faithfully carried out the will of his God and Father, and thus Yahweh does instruct us through His son, who in, turn sent God's holy spirit to help his apostles to instruct us. Thus, the entire New Testament are the teachings from Yahweh given through Jesus and the apostles. This does not mean that the son of Yahweh is Yahweh Himself.
Related Books
Please note that I do not necessarily agree with all that is stated in these books. -- Ronald
The Doctrine of the Trinity: Christianity's Self-Inflicted Wound -- Presents unitarian viewpoint; denies the prehuman existence of Jesus, but otherwise, the book contains a lot of good information.
When Jesus Became God -- Gives a lot of historical background.
The Orthodox Corruption of Scripture - The Effect of Early Christological Controversies
on the Text of the New Testament
Concepts of Father, Son, and Holy Spirit - A Classification and Description of the Trinitarian and Non-Trinitarian Theologies Existent Within Christendom
One God & One Lord : Reconsidering the Cornerstone of the Christian Faith
Truth in Translation: Accuracy and Bias in English Translations of the New Testament
The Father and the Son: Is Jesus God?
Divine Truth or Human Tradition A Reconsideration of the Roman Catholic-Protestant Doctrine of the Trinity in Light of the Hebrew and Christian Scriptures
Jesus Was Not a Trinitarian
The Trinity's Weak Links Revealed A chain is only as strong as its weakest link. |
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Sunday, October 5, 2008 - God and Son of God? Part 2 |
This is further response to:
Blog of the Good Shepherd
The statement is made that "Christians believe that Jesus is both fully human and fully God." Actually, this is not true, since there are many, many Biblically-oriented Christians who do not believe this. What this should actually state is that Christians who believe in the trinitarian dogma, and some other dogmas that have been added by man, believe that Jesus is both fully human and fully God. The Bible itself never mentions such a duality as described by trinitarians, for such dogma has to be assumed, added to, and read into, each scripture that is presented to allegedly support the assumed dogma.
Trinitarians assume this idea to be true and then go all through the words of Jesus and claim that parts of the words apply to Jesus in his alleged God "nature," and his being the Supreme Being, and that other parts of his words apply to Jesus as his being a human being, which being is not the Supreme Being. They will often split one sentence of Jesus two or three ways so as to make some parts of it apply to the alleged Jesus the Supreme Being, and other parts of the same sentence apply to Jesus the human being (who is not the Supreme Being.)
Following their reasoning through, Jesus is now two beings, one who is the Supreme Being, and another who is not the Supreme Being, for they claim that Jesus is right now still a human being, with a body of flesh, so that it would be only that human being that would address another as Supreme Being in Revelation 2:7; 3:2,12. Likewise, when Paul and Peter refer to the God and Father of Jesus (Romans 15:6; 2 Corinthians 1:3,11:31; Ephesians 1:3; 4:6; 1 Peter 1:3), they would add to this that this refers to the human being Jesus, and not the alleged Supreme Being Jesus. Thus, right now in the heavens, according this dogma, Jesus the human has another who is his Supreme Being.
Following such logic through to its logical end (which logic the trinitarian dogma simply ignores), then Jesus is right now as a human being that is not the Supreme Being, but rather lower than the Supreme Being, and he is also right now the Supreme Being who is not the human being, Jesus. In effect, it would claim that Jesus has two different sentiencies: (1) One sentient being that is omniscient; and (2) one sentient being that is not omniscient, and evidently is not aware of all that the alleged Jesus as the omniscient being is aware of. -- Mark 13:32; John 14:10; Revelation 1:1.
By his having two different sentiencies at the same time, one of which is not aware of the other, doesn't this actually draw the conclusion that Jesus himself is two different persons? Trinitarians deny that Jesus is two persons, but, in actuality, what other conclusion can we come to, if we take thier reasoning to the logical conclusions? Of course, some trinitarians will admit that their dogma isn't logical, and claim that we cannot understand God, and by this they justify the illogic of their added dogma. Some even offer the illogic of their dogma as proof that their dogma is true, claiming that since we cannot fully understand God, then there is no reason to fully understand the added-on dogma. In reality, why add such to the scriptures when the scriptures can be seen to fully in harmony without adding such dogma to the scriptures?
This study is being taken to:
http://sonofyah.wordpress.com/2008/10/05/gspt2/
I plan to remove this series from this blog in the next few days, Yahweh willing. |
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Wednesday, October 1, 2008 - Jesus and Life |
Did Jesus have to be God Almighty in order to give everlasting life?
This study is partly in response to the "oneness" essay found at:
http://www.whoisjesus.com/deputy.html
There is absolutely no scripture at all that says that Jesus had to be God in order to give everlasting life. Such a thought has to be added to, and read into, the scriptures. The one sent by the only true God (John 17:3) had to be a man, nothing more, nothing less, in order to buy back what Adam lost. It was not God who sinned and brought sin upon the world. The world was not condemned in God. The world was condemned in one man, Adam. Thus only one man, not one God, would be needed to pay the price for sin, as offering to God. (Romans 5:12-19; 1 Corinthians 15:21,22; Ephesians 5:2) God did not offer himself to God. It was "the man, Jesus Christ, who offered himself [to God] a ransom for all." -- 1 Timothy 2:5,6; Hebrews 9:14.
All mankind, being condemned Adam, has been subjected to vanity, under a bondage of corruption from which he needs to be delivered (Romans 8:21), a state of being crooked (not justified, not straight), and no human under this condition could make straight what God made crooked. The offspring of Adam was made crooked -- in an unjust condition -- by God due to Adam's sin. (Ecclesiastes 1:15; 7:13) Due to Adam's sin, the creation (not the angels, planets, stars etc., but rather mankind) was made subject to vanity, futility, under a bondage of corruption, from which it needed to be delivered -- saved. (Ecclesiastes 1:2,14; 3:19; 4:17; 12:8; Romans 8:20,21) The world aside from Jesus is a "dying" world. (1 Corinthians 1:18) This offspring is pictured as the "crooked generation" (Acts 2:40), "a crooked and perverse generation" (Philippians 2:15), "sons of disobedience" (Ephesians 2:2), and "children of wrath." -- Ephesians 2:3.
If all mankind are condemned in Adam, how could Jesus be a man, and yet not be condemned with the rest of mankind? The scriptures tell us that Jesus was born in a special way. It was his God who specially prepared his body (Hebrews 10:5) that it could be an offering for sin. (Hebrews 10:10) Jesus' birth, as a human being, was due to being being begotten/born (Greek, gennao) by means of God's holy spirit in the womb of Mary. (Matthew 1:20) Jesus, as a human being, was "living bread." His flesh, his body, was specially prepared by God (Hebrews 10:5), pictured as bread from heaven, separate from sinners, and separated from the condemnation of sin by means of Adam. (Romans 5:1-19; 1 Corinthians 15:21,22; 2 Corinthians 5:21; Hebrews 7:26; 1 Peter 2:22; 1 John 3:5) Thus, "in him was life" (John 1:4), life as Adam had it before Adam sinned. (Romans 5:14-19) Only Jesus had such sinless flesh that could be offered in sacrifice for the world, and that because his body was prepared separate from the offspring of Adam, who are "children of wrath," "sons of disobedience." (Ecclesiastes 1:15; 7:13; Ephesians 2:2,3) He gave that bread from heaven, his flesh, for the life of the world and for the believers of this age. (John 6:5; Hebrews 10:10) Jesus now lives by means of the power of the only true God. (2 Corinthians 13:4) After his resurrection, he has become the "last Adam," "the life-giving-spirit," who comes from heaven during the blowing of the last trumpet to raise the dead, the believers in the resurrection of life, the unbelievers in the resurrection of judgment. (John 5:28,29; 12:47,48; 1 Corinthians 15:45,52; 1 Thessalonians 4:16; Revelation 11:15,18) Thus, Jesus' power to give life to those who dying in Adam comes from the only true God, who has given him this power (Isaiah 9:7; Matthew 11:27; 28:18; Luke 1:32; 10:22; John 3:35; 5:22; 13:3; 17:7), based on the the ransom sacrifice that Jesus has given.
Nothing in any of this necessitates the idea that Jesus had to be God in order to receive his authority and power from his God and Father. Having received such authority and power from God, Jesus will awaken the dead in the "last day."
Indeed, if Jesus is God Almighty, then, in effect, the basis of the ransom as presented in the scriptures is dimished. It would basically nullify both Paul's and John's argument for an atoning sacrifice, condemnation in one man, justification in one man. It would further mean that, rather than condemning sin the flesh (Romans 8:3), Jesus justified sin in the flesh, since, rather than proving that a sinless man like Adam could obey God, it would have proved that only if Adam had been God Almighty that Adam could have obeyed God Almighty. However, in reality, through Jesus' obedience to his God, and through the sacrifice of his sinless life, Jesus provided the proof that the only true God is both just and yet the justifier of sinners. (Romans 3:26) He did not just let sin go unpunished, which would have been unjust on his part, but by means of the sacrifice of his son, the debt of sin was paid -- a man for a man (Romans 5:12-19; 1 Corinthians 15:21,22; not God for a God), so that God could be just in justifying sinners based on the offering that Jesus had given.
Jesus, having been put to death in the flesh, but made alive in the spirit, and having once for all time offered up his flesh, will never be seen in that flesh again. (Hebrews 7:27; 9:28; 10:10; 1 Peter 3:18) However, this does not rule out the *possibility* that Jesus may manifest himself as did the angels of Yahweh in the Bible, who appeared as "men," ate as men, and looked like men, manifesting themselves with a body of flesh. -- Genesis 18:2,8,22; 19:1,5; Judges 13:2,6,8,9; Luke 24:4.
Jesus no longer has the body of a man, a glory a little lower than the angels. (Hebrews 2:9) Having offered (to his God in heaven) his terrestrial, earthly, fleshly body for sin, once for all time (John 6:51; Hebrews 7:27; 9:11,12,24;10:10), he will never again be seen with that body. (1 Corinthians 15:40,44) Now being a life-giving spirit, he comes again from heaven (1 Corinthians 15:40,45-48), during the blowing of the last trumpet, the seventh trumpet (1 Thessalonians 4:16; Revelation 8:2,6), with a celestial, spiritual body, in which the plenitude (Greek, pleroma) of might (Greek, theotes) dwells, giving him the bodily power needed to carried out his exalted position. -- Colossians 2:9,10.
In Revelation 1:8 it is the God and Father of Jesus who is speaking, not Jesus. Jesus is never spoken of as the Almighty, or the Most High. He is the son of the Most High. The One speaking in Revelation is the One that Jesus speaks of as "my God." -- Revelation 2:7; 3:2,12.
http://reslight.net/forum/index.php?topic=139.0
Isaiah 9:6 speaks a singular name by which son given by the only true God (Isaiah 9:7) is to be called. That name is, "Pelejoezelgibborabiaadarshalom," which has been given the meaning: "Wonderful in counsel is God the Mighty, the everlasting Father, the Ruler of peace." -- This appears under Isaiah 9:5, in some editions of the Jewish Publication Society Translation.
Nevertheless, Mighty God, if applied as a title to the Messiah, should be understood in a manner that the same expression, in plural, is used in Ezekiel 32:21. I don't know of any translation that renders the expression there as "Mighty Gods," but most translation render it with similar epressions as in found in the King James Version, that is, "The strong among the mighty." Jesus is now, after his exaltation, certainly a strong one among the mighty, but he is not the Most High of whom he is the son.
http://reslight.net/forum/index.php?topic=405.0
In John 20:28, the expression "the lord of me and the God of me," would usually denote two different persons, since the definite article appears twice. When one person is meant, there usually are not two definite articles, as can be seen in Greek of John 20:17, just two verses before. Thus, it is possible John showed these contrasts close to each other to indicated that Thomas was speaking of Jesus as the lord of me, and then he was speaking of the God and Father of Jesus as "the God of me."
If Thomas did speak of Jesus when he said, "the God of me," this would be only instance in the entire Bible where anyone addressed Jesus by such a term. We do not find anyone else addressing, or speaking of, Jesus as "my God," "our God," or "your God." Of course, the God and Father was "in Jesus" (John 10:38; 14:10,11,20; 17:21) and thus Thomas could have been addressing the God and Father of Jesus as being in Jesus. Or, Thomas could be using THEOS in the sense of rulership, as a form of EL is used in Ezekiel 32:21. The usuage here does not necessarily mean that Thomas thought that the Almighty Yahweh was there standing before him. It certainly does not give us reason to conclude that Jesus is the only true God who sent Jesus. -- John 17:3.
In John 1:1, John twice states that the Logos, the Word of God, was with God. This agrees with John 17:1,3,5, in which Jesus expressed that he was with the only true God before the world of mankind was made. Being the the Logos was with the only true God, the most logical reasoning would be that John was not saying the the Logos 'was' the only true God whom he was with. The most logical reasoning would be to look in the scriptures to see in what manner the word "theos" could apply to one who is not the only true God. In the Hebrew, such usage is often recognized by English translators by rendering the various form of EL (the basic Hebrew word for "God) by expressions that denote might, power, strength, etc. Applying this the Word of God, who was with the only true God, then the latter part of John 1:1 could be rendered as "the Word was mighty," not "the Word was God." Jesus "was" (past tense) indeed a mighty one with the only true God before became flesh. Jesus was not the only true God whom he was with.
http://notrinity.blogspot.com/2008/08/john-112-word-was-mighty.html
"The Word became flesh, and lived among us. We saw his glory, such glory as of the only Son of the Father, full of grace and truth." (John 1:14) John testifies of having seen the glory of Jesus while Jesus was a human being, in the flesh, a little lower than the angels. Having a body specially prepared by God (Hebrews 10:5), he had the unmarred crown of glory as a human. (Hebrews 2:9) Adam, who was also a "the son of God," in effect, lost that sonship by becoming a 'son of disobedience.' (Ephesians 2:20) Being disobedient, Adam became a child of God's wrath, falling short of the glory of God. (Romans 3:23) Nevertheless, before Adam sinned, Adam provides a type of Jesus, who was to come in flesh. (Romans 5:14) Unlike Adam, however, Jesus never fell short of the glory of God, for in was no sin. (1 John 3:5) Thus, in Jesus' flesh could be seen the glory of the only true God. None of this means that Jesus is Yahweh, of whom he is the Son.
"Take heed, therefore, to yourselves, and to all the flock, in which the Holy Spirit has made you overseers, to shepherd the assembly of the Lord and God which he purchased with his own blood." (Acts 20:28, World English) A more literal translation would be "blood of his own." Thus, some translations read similar to the Revised Standard: "Take heed to yourselves and to all the flock, in which the Holy Spirit has made you overseers, to care for the church of God which he obtained with the blood of his own Son." In Acts 20:20,21, Paul distinguishes between Jesus and God, saying: "I didn't shrink from declaring to you anything that was profitable, teaching you publicly and from house to house, testifying both to Jews and to Greeks repentance toward God, and faith toward our Lord Jesus Christ." In Ephesians 1:3-7, Paul speaks of this matter, and differentiates between Jesus and God. Likewise, in Colossians 1:12-14. In Hebrews 9:12-14, we read that Jesus offers his blood to God. God does not offer God's flesh and blood to God. However, there is a manner in which the blood of Christ can be understood to be that of the only true God, since Jesus' body of flesh and blood was specially prepared by God himself. (Hebrews 10:5) It is only in this sense that Jesus' blood could be understood to the God's own blood, that is, that Jesus was the offspring, the son, of the only true God. In this sense, I can say that my son is my own blood, meaning my offspring. None of this means that Jesus is the only true God who sent Jesus. -- John 17:3.
"In [instrumental "en", Strong's #1722, by means of] Christ God was reconciling the world to himself, not counting their trespasses against them, and entrusting to us the message of reconciliation." (2 Corinthians 5:19) "And all this is from God, who has reconciled us to himself through Christ and given us the ministry of reconciliation." (New American Translation) "That God was by Christ, (\~en cristw\~,) by means of Christ; by the agency or mediatorship of Christ."* "God, who has reconciled us to Himself through Jesus Christ."** Verse 18 shows that "en" is being used as denoting instrumentality: "All things are of God, who reconciled us to himself through [Greek, dia, Strongs #1223] Jesus Christ, and gave to us the ministry of reconciliation." Jesus' being the instrument used by God would actually show that Jesus is not God.
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*Barnes, Albert. "Commentary on 2 Corinthians 5". "Barnes' Notes on the New Testament". http://www.studylight.org/com/bnn/view.cgi?book=2co&chapter=005.
**Guzik, David. "Commentary on 2 Corinthians 5". "David Guzik's Commentaries on the Bible".
http://www.studylight.org/com/guz/view.cgi?book=2co&chapter=005.
1997-2003.
"She shall bring forth a son. You shall call his name JESUS, for it is he who shall save [deliver] his people from their sins." (Matthew 1:21) Like, many of the saviors sent by Yahweh to Israel to deliver Israel from their enemies (Nehemiah 9:27), Jesus was also sent by Yahweh, the only true God, to deliver his people from their sins. "Yahweh... sent me... to deliver those who are crushed." (Isaiah 61:1; Luke 4:18) "I spoke not from myself, but the Father who sent me, he gave me a commandment, what I should say, and what I should speak." (John 12:49) Jesus could deliver mankind from sin because he, as a man, maintained obedience to his God and Father, and thus, through the sacrfice of his flesh, he could thereby offset the condemnation that is upon mankind through Adam, providing the ransom, the offsetting price, for all. -- Romans 5:12-19; 1 Corinthians 15:21,22; 1 Timothy 2:5,6.
Matthew 1:23 - "'Behold, the virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son. They shall call his name Immanuel;' which is, being interpreted, 'God with us.'" Evidently it is being assumed that since Jesus is called by this name, that this would mean that Jesus is Yahweh. In actuality, the bearer of a name in which God is declared as being or doing something does not mean that the bearer of the name is God who is being declared by those names as being or doing whatever is being spoken of. the name. "Jehu" means "He is Yah" or "Yah is He." Does that mean the man who bore the name Jehu is, in reality, Yahweh? Likewise with the name Eliathath, which means "God has come". Are we to think that Eliathath is God Almighty because of the name given to him? We can look at nother name, "Elnathan", meaning "God has given"; does it mean that the bearer of this name is God who does the giving? When Abraham called the place where he sacrificed the ram "Yahweh-jireh", meaning "Yahweh will provide", was he saying that the place was Yahweh Himself? Did the name Daniel, meaning "Judgment of God", mean that Daniel was God? Nevertheless, the only true God was with Jesus while Jesus was in the flesh, and thus, through Jesus, God was with his people. (John 8:29) By means his words and works, one could see the only true God through Jesus. (John 14:9; 16:32) "Grace, mercy, and peace will be with us, from God the Father, and from the Lord Jesus Christ, the Son of the Father, in truth and love." -- 2 John 1:3.
It is misleading to say that "God made Jesus, and then Jesus made everything else." Yahweh, "God, the Father of our Lord, Jesus Christ" (Colossians 1:3), created through (dia), or by means of (Greek instrumental "en") of his firstborn living creature. (John 1:3,10; Colossians 1:15,16) Jesus evidently was not present when Yahweh created the physical universe. (Isaiah 44:24) However, Jesus was the firstborn living creature, the first that God brought forth into being, and then God made the world of mankind "through" Jesus (John 1:3,10), and by means of him God made all dominions (living beings) in heaven and on earth. (Colossians 1:16) In the Bible, Jesus, the Lamb of God, is never spoken of as the creator; Jesus did not claim to be the Creator, but claimed that his God and Father was the creator. -- Mark 10:6; 13:19.
http://sonofyah.wordpress.com/2008/09/10/is-44-24/
http://creation.reslight.net/tb.html
"Then the end comes, when he will deliver up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he will have abolished all rule and all authority and power. For he must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet. The last enemy that will be abolished is death.For, 'He put all things in subjection under his feet.' But when he says, 'All things are put in subjection,' it is evident that he is excepted who subjected all things to him. When all things have been subjected to him, then the Son will also himself be subjected to him who subjected all things to him, that God may be all in all." (1 Corinthians 15:24-28) A clear distinction is made here between God, who subjected all things to Jesus, and Jesus, to whom all things have been subjected. That which was subjected to Jesus does not include God, and never will include God. When all things have been brought into subjection to Jesus, then Jesus will deliver up the kingdom to God, that all creation may be in harmony with "the God and Father of our Lord Jesus." (2 Corinthians 11:31) This brings up to the time when the millennial sheep inherit the earth after the thousand years of the reign of Christ with his church. During this thousand years, Jesus continues a mediator between God and man until all things have been brought into subjection through Jesus. When all things have been brought into subjection, the need for a mediator will end. This does not mean that Jesus' everlasting dominion will come to an end. (Daniel 7:14; 2 Peter 1:11) However, all the power and authority that Jesus has at any time is that given to him by his God and Father. (Matthew 28:18; John 5:30; 8:28) What Paul is saying is that once all things are brought into a sinless condition, and death is swallowed up in victory, then there is no longer a need for a mediator since the reconciliation between God and man will have been completed.
Neither Jesus nor the God and Father of Jesus was ever a part of this world, as that term is used in scripture. (Greek, kosmos, Strong's #2889) Jesus came into this world, the world that was made through him. This world did not recognize him. (John 1:10) This world has as its prince, its ruler, Satan. (John 14:30) "The whole world lies in the power of the evil one." (1 John 5:19) This world that he came into has been condemned in sin. (Romans 5:12-19; 1 Corinthians 11:32) This world that Jesus came into is made of sons of disobedience, who have been made by nature children of wrath. Jesus had no part in that condemnation, and remained separate from this world. Those who follow Jesus must also become regenerated as new creatures, belonging to Jesus, and thus no longer part of Satan's world even as Jesus was no part of Satan's world. -- Galatians 6:14; Ephesians 2:2; James 1:27.
Of course, I realize that what is meant is that Jesus, allegedly being God Almighty Himself, became part of his own creation. Taking to its logical conclusion, it would mean that God became a creation, a part of the material universe, thus He who created was created as part of the creation that He created. Of course, in reality, we find nothing at all in the Bible about God becoming a part of the material creation that he created. It is but human philosophy that has to be added to and read into the scriptures. There is not one thing in the Bible that gives us reason to add to the scriptures that God Almighty Himself would have to become part of his material creation in order, that is, that God would become a material creation of Himself, in order to save mankind. The Scripture does not say that God sent Himself as a son of Himself, but rather "God sent his only begotten Son into the world, that we might live through him." (1 John 4:9, KJV) I have no reason to philosophically change this so as to make it mean that God sent Himself as his only begotten Son of Himself, not just into the world, but as part of his own creation, that we might live through God who sent Himself as his own Son, part of his own creation. The scriptures no where speak of such a thing.
1 Peter 1:18,19 - Knowing that you were redeemed, not with* corruptible things, with* silver or gold, from the useless way of life handed down from your fathers, but with* precious blood, as of a lamb without spot, the blood of Christ.
======
*The word "with" is supplied by translators in all three instances.
1 Peter 1:18,19 - knowing that not with corruptible things, silver or gold, were you redeemed from your worthless way of life handed down from your fathers, -- Greens Literal Translation.
Green supplies "with" twice, but he does not supply "with" before "silver or gold."
1 Peter 1:18,19 - knowing that you were not redeemed with perishable things like silver or gold from your futile way of life inherited from your forefathers, but with precious blood, as of a lamb unblemished and spotless, the blood of Christ. -- New American Standard
The NAS supplies "like" before silver or gold. Of course, something has to be supplied to have the words make sense in English. The NAS, I believe, comes most closely to what Peter's thought was.
The New International Version: For you know that it was not with perishable things such as silver or gold that you were redeemed from the empty way of life handed down to you from your forefathers
New Living Translation: For you know that God paid a ransom to save you from the empty life you inherited from your ancestors. And the ransom he paid was not mere gold or silver.
I believe that Peter is using gold and silver as symbols of the highest degree that man has to give in his present vain condition.
Through Adam, the world became corrupted due to lust (desire). (2 Peter 1:4) Adam was put on this earth in a condition of being not corrupt, but he was corruptible. He was upright, not crooked. (Ecclesiastes 7:29) He succumbed to the desire to please his wife, and thus disobeyed God, and by such disobedience he became corrupted. Thus the whole world, all of the offspring of Adam, has been made crooked, corrupt, in a bondage to corruption from which not one of mankind under that bondage is able escape. "It is a heavy burden that God has given to the sons of men to be afflicted with. I have seen all the works that are done under the sun; and, behold, all is vanity and a chasing after wind. That which is crooked can't be made straight; and that which is lacking can't be counted." (Ecclesiastes 12:13-15) The world through is Adam is as Solomon stated: "Vanity of vanities, all is vanity!" (Ecclesiastes 1:20) As Peter says, such is a worthless way of life. With this, Paul agrees, saying: "For the creation [not the stars, planets, sun, moon, nor even the angels, but the world of man only] was subjected to vanity, not of its own will, but by reason of him who subjected it." (Romans 8:20, American Standard) Paul goes on to say: "in hope that the creation itself also shall be delivered from the bondage of corruption." (Romans 8:20,21) Yes, the world of mankind is in a bondage of corruption due to Adam's sin, and need to be delivered from that bondage. This dying existence of man as such is but useless, vanity, futile. The dying existence that Adam has left the world with cannot be delivered from its crooked state by corruptible things, such as silver and gold which are usually used in this corrupted world to purchase things.
Silver and gold, at least as the world now is, is subject to corruption in the form of possible corrosion, an illustration of man's highest efforts to being upright while being in bondage to corruption due to Adam's sin. Although corrosion of gold or silver is possible, both are highly resistant to corrosion, and thus it is very hard to think of gold and silver as becoming corrupted, or being perishable, which is probably why Peter chose these two elements as examples.
Paul uses gold and silver to illustrate one's works. (1 Corinthians 3:12,13) The highest works that man can perform -- as represented in gold and silver -- outside of Christ would be still be found corrupted. Thus the Psalmist wrote: "Surely every man at his best is a mere breath." (Psalm 39:5, New American Standard) Indeed, no matter how close a person may come to being sinless, without Christ, he still falls short, and is still under the bondage of corruption. His works as represented in gold and silver will not deliver him from the bondage of corruption, not matter how incorruptible the person may seem.
Jesus, on the other hand, was not born into this world under its bondage of corruption. His flesh, his body with its blood, was specially prepared by his God. (Hebrews 10:5) As such, his flesh was not born in corruption, but he was born as was Adam before Adam sinned, in an incorrupt condition. To fulfill the law, however, he had to be as was Adam, corruptible. In other words he had have that possibility of being corrupted. He was upright, but would he become crooked, as did Adam? We know from the scriptures that Jesus never became corrupted, and by proving his obedience, he, in effect, "put on incorruption." Jesus remained "without spot," without any sin, and thus his blood -- representing his life, his soul, was never corrupted by sin. Indeed, Jesus proved that he could not be corrupted; he was incorruptible. By proving himself incorruptible, he brought life and incorruption to light. (2 Timothy 1:10) No human before him had ever proved himself incorruptible. Having proven himself incorruptible, he had the right to live forever as a human, but he sacrificed that incorruptible blood -- representing his incorruptible human soul, his incorruptible human life (Leviticus 17:14; Deuteronomy 12:23) -- in order to redeem, to buy mankind back from the bondage of corruption.
The whole basis of the ransom hinges on the fact that it was a man (not God), who gave himself as a ransom (offsetting price) for all. (1 Timothy 2:5,6) Jesus was the offsetting price because he was what Adam was and what Adam could have been had Adam remained in obedience.
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Friday, September 5, 2008 - God and Son of God? Part 1 |
The Blog of the Good Shepherd attempts to answer the question of how Jesus can be both the son of God, and yet also be God. We will be addressing the answers given on that blog in this series of posts, as well as providing the scriptural answer to the question.
The questioner asked pertaining the meaning the words "Messiah" and "Christ," and as to whether these words mean "son of God." In this post, we will be discussing the meaning of the words "Messiah" and "Christ."
We read in Smith's Bible Dictionary, under the word "Messiah":
This word (Mashiach ) answers to the word Christ (Christos ) in the New Testament, and is applicable in its first sense to any one anointed with the holy oil. Studylight's online Lexicon gives the meaning of the Hebrew word:
anointed, anointed one
- of the Messiah, Messianic prince
- of the king of Israel
- of the high priest of Israel
- of Cyrus
- of the patriarchs as anointed kings
Thus, the word in the Bible, in a general way, applies to anyone who is "anointed." As such the priests in the Old Testament were Christs, as well as were the kings of Israel.
The word, of itself, does not mean savior, son of God, redeemer, deliverer, etc. Nevertheless, there were promises in the Old Testament of one who was to come as Messiah, who would also be a deliverer, and who was to a son given by the Yahweh, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. Thus the term "Messiah" is often used as related to those promises. This promised Messiah was to come as the seed of the man, David, and of Jesse, the father of David (Psalm 132:11; Isaiah 11:1; Jeremiah 23:5); thus, in the New Testament, Jesus often refers to himself with the title, "the Son of the Man" (Matthew 9:6; 12:40; 16:28 -- most translations drop the definite article in this title, making it "Son of Man").
The Messiah, however, was to be a "son" given to Israel by Yahweh, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. (Isaiah 9:6,7) In Luke this one is identified as "the son of the Most High." The only Most High is identified in the Old Testament as "the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob." In the New Testament he is identified as the "God and Father of our Lord Jesus." Jesus is never once identified in the scriptures as the "Most High," but only as the "son of the Most High," the one sent by the only true God, the only Most High. -- -- Genesis 14:22; Exodus 3:15; Psalm 7:17; 83:18; 92:1; Luke 1:32; John 13:16; 17:3; 2 Corinthians 11:32; Ephesians 1:3; 1 Peter 1:3.
The One who anointed Jesus was the only Most High, Yahweh. Being "anointed" by the Most High, therefore the words Messiah and Christ applied to Jesus show that Jesus is not Yahweh who anointed him. -- Psalm 2:2; 45:7; Isaiah 61:1; Acts 2:36; 4:27; 10:38.
Thus, there is nothing in the term Messiah that would indicate that Jesus is both Yahweh, the only true God, as well as the Son of Yahweh. Only the God and Father of Jesus is identified as the only true God in the Bible. (John 17:3) Jesus is indeed the Son of Yahweh, the only Most High, but he is not the only Most High of whom he is the Son.
This study is being taken to:
http://sonofyah.wordpress.com/2008/10/05/53/
It will, God willing, be removed from this site in a few days.
To be continued in Part 2 |
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Saturday, June 7, 2008 - John 1:1 and the Trinitarian |
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God [TON THEON], and the Word was God [THEOS]. The same was in the beginning with God [TON THEON]. -- John 1:1,2, World English - transliterations from the Westcott & Hort Interlinear.
John 1:1 is often given to us by trinitarians as proof of their trinitarian dogma. However, even amongst trinitarian scholars there appears to be some disagreement as to how or in what way John's statement in John 1:1 should be applied
Most trinitarians will tell us that Jesus is not "TON THEON" whom he was, but that, in some way, both TON THEON and the LOGOS are to be considered as the "one true God." Therefore, In order to get trinity out of John 1:1, the trinitarian has to suppose, add to and read into the verse several things: (1) that two persons of the trinity-god are being spoken of here, and (2) that TON THEON whom the Logos was with is the their alleged "first person" of the trinity, and (3) that THEOS applied to the Word is their alleged "second person" of the trinity. Then, (4) they need to add to these assumptions that these two alleged persons of their trinity are both the same one true God. Rather than assuming and adding such to the scriptures, it is best to simply let the scriptures have their own say, applying spiritual revealment with spiritual revealment. -- 1 Corinthians 2:10,13.
The word THEOS is being applied to the LOGOS in John 1:1, but this does not mean that John was saying that Jesus was the only true God whom the LOGOS was with, as it should be apparent since twice John states that the LOGOS was with God. Jesus lets us know that One whom he was with before the world was made was "the only true God" (John 17:1,3,5); therefore, the scriptures make it plain that John is not saying that the Logos was the only true God whom the Logos was with. Thus, the term THEOS as applied to the Logos should be applied with the general meaning of the Hebraic words for deity/divinity (form of EL, ELOHIM), that is, of strength, power, might.
While most translations render "kai theos een ho logos" as "the Word was God," Moffat renders this phrase as ""the Word was divine." Julius Mantey declares that the phrase means "the Word was deity." We should have no objection to rendering theos as divine or deity, if one applies the terms divine and deity with the general meaning of strength, might, power, rather than as Supreme Being -- the Might of the Universe. James Parkinson, in his footnote of the American Revised Version Improved and Corrected, suggests "mighty was the Word." This would be the better rendering, or a rendering such as "the Word was mighty," both of which would distinguish the Word from the only true God whom the Logos was with. This would be in agreement with the rest of the scriptures, where the words for deity / divinity are applied to persons (and even things) who are not Yahweh in a general sense of might, power or strength.
The best point to begin with to show this usage is with John 10:34,35, where Jesus quotes/references Psalms 82:1,6, where both forms of the Hebrew word EL and ELOHIM are applied the sons of the Most High, the sons to whom the Logos came (as Jesus explained). In John 10:34,35, the word ELOHIM is rendered as THEOI, the plural of THEOS. According the King James Version, God [ELOHIM] standeth in the congregation of the mighty [EL]. (Psalm 82:1) In reference to the sons of the Most High, the KJV renders the term EL as "the mighty." I believe that the KJV is correct in this rendering. Applying this scriptural principle to THEOS in John 1:1, we would likewise have "the Logos was mighty."
Of course, this is not the only place that the KJV renders forms of the words EL (Strong's Hebrew #410) and ELOHIM (Strong's Hebrew #430) with terms showing mightiness or strength. Here are a few scriptures, with the rendering of EL or ELOHIM given in parenthesis: Genesis 23:6 (mighty); Genesis 30:8 (mighty); Genesis 31:29 (power); Deuteronomy 28:32 (might); 1 Samuel 14:15 (great); Nehemiah 5:5 (power); Psalm 8:5 (angels); Psalm 36:6 (great); Proverbs 3:27 (power); Psalm 29:1 (mighty); Ezekiel 32:21 (strong); Jonah 3:3 (exceeding). The point is the King James translators, in all these verses, did not render the word for deity/divinity [EL] as "God" or as "god", but with terms of might, strength, great, power and might.
All of the spirit beings, by "nature" of the superior might given to them by the Almighty are scripturally designated as el or elohim, and thus can be spoken of as divine -- mighty -- in being. -- Psalm 8:5 (compare Hebrews 2:9; also Psalm 50:1 and 96:4 could be speaking of angels as elohim); 45:6,7; Isaiah 9:6,7; John 1:1,2; Acts 2:33; 5:31; Ephesians 1:20,22; Philippians 2:9-11; Hebrews 1:2-4,8; 1 Peter 1:21; 3:22.
Likewise, the firstborn creature (Colossians 1:15), who existed before all the creation that was created by means of him (Colossians 1:17), can certainly also have the term theos applied to him without meaning that he is the only true God who sent him. Indeed, before he became a man, he "was" a mighty spirit being, having a heavenly glory that he did not possess while he was a human. -- John 17:5; 1 Corinthians 15:40.
Christian love,
Ronald |
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Sunday, January 27, 2008 - Mystery of the Godhead? - 1 Timothy 3:16 |
Trinitarians, as well as oneness believers, and some others, often speak of the "mystery of the Godhead". They cite 1 Timothy 3:16 as declaring such a mystery. (http://tinyurl.com/yotz92) It seems that many of them read the expression "mystery of godliness" so though it says "mystery of the Godhead." In actuality, there is nothing at all in 1 Timothy 3:16 about "godhead" or "trinity". While we do find a mystery being spoken of, we do not find anything there, or anywhere else in the Bible, about a mystery of a trinity, or a mystery of "the godhead".
1 Timothy 3:16 - By common confession, great is the mystery of godliness: He who was revealed in the flesh, Was vindicated in the Spirit, Seen by angels, Proclaimed among the nations, Believed on in the world, Taken up in glory. -- New American Standard.
Or, KJV: without controversy great is the mystery of godliness; RHM: confessedly great is the sacred secret of godliness; WMS: the mystery of our religion is a great wonder; NEB: great beyond all question is the mystery of our religion; GDS: no one can deny the profundity of the divine truth of; NWT: godly devotion; BAR: the greatness of the truth of our religion. The Greek often translated "religion" is EU-SEBEIAS [Strong's Concordance #2150, well-reverent]. Dictionary of New Testament Theology [Colin Brown], Volume 2, page 91, comments on the root meaning of this word: "The root seb- meant originally to step back from someone or something, to maintain a distance…developed the metamorphical idea of trepidation ranging from shame, through wonder, to something approaching fear." Thus, this awe [wonder/fear] inspires worship of the Creator which some call religion. The Greek for "mystery" is MYSTERION [Strong's Concordance #3466].
As mentioned, while the word "mystery" is in 1 Timothy 3:16, there is nothing in this scripture that says anything about this "mystery" being that Jesus has two states of glory at once, or that Jesus is Yahweh; such ideas have to be added to and read into what is stated.
Let us examine closer the Greek word translated "mystery" and its meaning:
Musterion
hidden thing, secret, mystery
generally mysteries, religious secrets, confided only to the initiated and not to ordinary mortals
a hidden or secret thing, not obvious to the understanding
a hidden purpose or counsel
secret will 1c
of men 1c
of God: the secret counsels which govern God in dealing with the righteous, which are hidden from ungodly and wicked men but plain to the godly
in rabbinic writings, it denotes the mystic or hidden sense
of an OT saying
of an image or form seen in a vision
of a dream
Thayer and Smith. "Greek Lexicon entry for Musterion". "The NAS New Testament Greek Lexicon".
http://www.biblestudytools.net/Lexicons/Greek/grk.cgi?number=3466&version=nas. 1999.
What is this mystery in 1 Timothy 3:16? Doesn't Paul say it is "the mystery of godliness"? So our next question is: What does "godliness" mean?
The Greek word "godliness" is transliterated as "Eusebeia" which means "reverence, respect, piety toward God."
Thayer and Smith. "Greek Lexicon entry for Eusebeia". "The KJV New Testament Greek Lexicon".
http://www.biblestudytools.net/Lexicons/Greek/grk.cgi?number=2150.
Since this is something that is done "toward God", the question arises: Is Paul, then, speaking of God's own godliness (reverence, respect, piety) toward himself as a mystery?
Obviously, it is speaking of someone else's reverence toward God, not of God's reverence toward Himself. What we can be certain of is that the "mystery" spoken of is not an alleged "mystery" of a trinity, of a godhead expressed in three modes (oneness doctrine). The word translated "godliness" has to do with the manner of worship, not of a duality of natures of Jesus in the flesh (one sentient being who omniscient, and another sentient being who is not ominsicent?). The latter idea has to be twisted into the scripture.
Whose godliness toward God is spoken of as a mystery? 1 Timothy 3:16 then tells of Christ "Who (as in the oldest Greek Siniatic MS text -- not "God") was manifest [Phaneroo] in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory."
The Greek word *Phareroo* means:
to make manifest or visible or known what has been hidden or unknown, to manifest, whether by words, or deeds, or in any other way make actual and visible, realised to make known by teaching to become manifest, be made known of a person expose to view, make manifest, to show one's self, appear to become known, to be plainly recognised, thoroughly understood
who and what one is
Thayer and Smith. "Greek Lexicon entry for Phaneroo". "The NAS New Testament Greek Lexicon". http://www.biblestudytools.net/Lexicons/Greek/grk.cgi?number=5319&version=nas. 1999.
So, then is this mystery of godliness understood by anyone? It should be apparent that this "mystery" was understood by some, and yet it is a mystery -- not understood -- to others.
Who is this mystery of godliness, of piety toward God, concerning? None other than the one spoken in the following words: the one who was revealed in the flesh, vindicated in the spirit, seen by angels, who was proclaimed among the nations, etc. That is, the Messiah, Jesus, the Son of the living God.
Why is the mystery so great? Because, through the full and total obedience of Jesus, life and incorruption (Greek, Aphtharsia) has been brought to light for mankind. (2 Timothy 1:10) Jesus never once disobeyed his God, nor once did he do other than what pleased his God. By his obedience, unlike Adam, Jesus brought life and incorruption to light.
What has God revealed through his scriptures concerning this mystery of godliness? This glorious One, as a human, never fell short of the glory of God by sin. (Romans 3:23) Unlike Adam and the sinful flesh produced from Adam, he fully had the crown of glory as a human, and kept the crown untainted by sin. (Hebrews 2:9) He gave up the glory of humanity, in order to provide a sacrifice for Adam and the dying race in Adam, that he might taste death for every man. Although now of a different plane of glory than he had while on earth (John 17:5; 1 Corinthians 15:40; Hebrews 2:9), he is the same one who, while on earth, was the Man Christ Jesus, a man of sorrows and acquainted with grief. (Isaiah 53:3) Jesus spoke of the glory he had before the world was made, which glory he did not have while on earth. (John 17:5) Paul tells us how Jesus left the heavenly glory, how He humbled Himself to take a bondman's form -- to take the same form of bondage as humanity had come into bondage due to sin. (Philippians 2:7,8) Jesus was not a "God-man". He was completely and totally that which the Bible claims that he was, a human being, nothing more, nothing less, "a little lower than the angels," except that the Bible reveals that his body of flesh was prepared by his God, so that his flesh was not tainted with Adamic sinful flesh. Thus he had been given a body which could be offered in sacrifice for the sinful, dying world. (Luke 22:19; John 6:51; Hebrews 10:5,10) Additionally, unlike Adam, Jesus had been with his God and Father long before the world of mankind was made (John 17:5), so that he was amply taught (John 8:28), prepared, sanctified, before the only true God sent him into the world of mankind. (John 10:36; 17:1,3) Having fully kept the law of God up until the age of 30, he was approved by his God and Father as acceptable as the atoning sacrifice for the sin of the world. (Matthew 3:15-17; Mark 1:11; Luke 3:22; John 1:29; Romans 3:25; 1 John 2:2; 4:10) Having no sin, and having proven himself fully obedient, Jesus was given unlimited access to the holy spirit of his God. -- John 3:34; Matthew 12:28.
How was Jesus justified in the spirit? Jesus had no need to be justified from sin, for he was without sin. Jesus was, however, proved right, proved to be without sin, in the spirit when he was tried, even until his death. He proved to be whom he claimed, to be, the Messiah, the one without spot, without sin. His spirit of obedience never failed. Nevertheless, Paul could have been referring to Jesus' being raised "in the spirit". The matter was set straight, in other words -- not yet to unbelieving world, but before the angels -- he was "seen of angels" -- and he was justified before believers on the earth.
Jesus was "preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world". The world of mankind in general has never believed on Jesus. To them all of this is still a mystery, for it has not become apparent -- it has not been revealed to their understanding -- exactly who Jesus was and is. Additionally, because of compromise -- a falling away from the true faith, God has sent his people [by allowing Satan to do his work] a strong delusion, which has furthered muddled an understanding of who Jesus is, so that even many who profess Christ have not truly understood. -- 2 Thessalonians 2:3-11.
http://godandson.reslight.net/jesusnotyhwh.html
http://studies.reslight.net/mysteries.html
Could the mystery be understood? By whom? Jesus was believed on "in the world". The mystery was and is understood by many true believers that Jesus was indeed the one who was without sin, the man who died to correspond to Adam (Romans 5:15-19; 1 Corinthians 15:21,22; 1 Timothy 2:5,6); the one who was sent by the only true God to provide the ransom sacrifice, the propitiation, the atoning sacrifice for sin. (John 17:1,3; Romans 3:25; 1 John 2:2; 4:10) These believers are "in the world" but not "of the world". -- John 17:11,16.
Jesus was received into glory; not the human glory that he had sacrificed , but the glory of a celestial, heavenly, spiritual body. -- 1 Corinthians 15:40,44.
http://atonement.reslight.net/raisedspirit.html
This is our confession of godliness, which is great, for we cannot have any basis for godliness on our part without the one sent by the only true God.
Writings by others:
http://tinyurl.com/qwbbd
The claim is made by one that there are 262 out of 264 manuscripts in Greek that testify to the word "God" being the correct reading of 1 Timothy 3:16.
1 Timothy 3:16
kai homologoumenws mega estin to tees eusebeias
AND CONFESSEDLY GREAT IS THE OF THE REVERING WELL
2532 3672 3173 1510_2 3588 3588 2150
musteerion hos ephanerwthee en sarki edikaiwthee
MYSTERY; WHO WAS MANIFESTED IN FLESH, WAS JUSTIFIED
3466 3739 5319 1722 4561 1344
en pneumati wphthee aggelois ekeeruchthee en
IN SPIRIT, WAS SEEN TO ANGELS, WAS PREACHED IN
1722 4151 3708 0032 2784 1722
ethnesin episteuthee en kosmw aneleemphthee en
NATIONS, WAS BELIEVED IN WORLD, WAS TAKEN UP IN
1484 4100 1722 2889 0353 1722
doxee
GLORY.
1391
Westcott & Hort Interlinear
1 Timothy 3:16 reads, in part:
hOS EFANERWQH EN SARKI
EDIKAIWQH EN PNEUMATI
WFQH AGGELOIS
EKHRUCQH EN EQNESIN
EPISTEUQH EN KOSMW
ANELHMFQH EN DOXH
from:
http://tinyurl.com/op6az
While I highly doubt that Paul wrote "God" in this verse, even so, one still has to read into the verse what trinitarians claim, that it is speaking of a duality of being of Jesus, or that Jesus is Yahweh.
Many refer to the above as a "hymn".
The World English, based on the Textus Receptus, reads: Without controversy, the mystery of godliness is great: God was revealed in the flesh, Justified in the spirit, Seen by angels, Preached among the nations, Believed on in the world, And received up in glory.
God was indeed made manifest, was revealed, in his Son in the flesh, but not to the entire world, but only "to whoever the Son wants to reveal him". (Matthew 11:27) 1 Timothy 3:16, as it reads in the Textus Receptus, does not say that Jesus was "God in the flesh", as some often misquote what is said in the KJV and some other translations of 1 Timothy 3:16. What it says is "God was revealed in the flesh." Jesus, having descending from his God and Father from heaven, knew his God. (John 3:13) Not only this, Jesus maintained piety toward His God and Father in perfect fidelity to the glory of his God and Father. Jesus did not at all fall short of the glory of God, as did Adam. -- Matthew 11:27; Luke 10:22; John 1:18; 14:6-9; 17:3,6,8,21,23,26.
God was justified -- proven righteous -- in Christ's spirit of obedience, proving that God's just laws and commands for man are not unjust, by which Jesus condemned sin in the flesh, and yet, through the ransom sacrifice of Jesus, God is the justifier of the sinner. -- Romans 3:25,26; 8:3.
http://atonement.reslight.net/c-s.html
God was seen in Jesus by the angels. -- Matthew 4:11; 26:53; Mark 1:13; Luke 8:1; John 1:51.
God was preached amongst Israel and the Gentiles through the preaching of and about His Son. -- Luke 4:43; 9:2; Mark 1:14; Luke 4:18,19,43; 8:1; 9:2; Acts 8:12; 10:42; 20:25; 28:31; Romans 15:19; 1 Corinthian 1:21; Galatians 2:2.
God was being believed in among the Gentiles (as well as in Israel) through their faith in His Son, and his sacrifice for sin. -- Mark 1:15; John 1:12; 3:16,17; Romans 5:8; 2 Corinthians 5:19-20; Titus 3:4-6; 1 John 1:3; 2:23; 4:9,10,19
God, as seen in his Son, was received in glory, by which the God and Father of Jesus was glorified in His Son. -- John 12:28; 17:1; Acts 2:24-36; Romans 6:4; 15:6; Ephesians 1:17,20; Philippians 4:19,20; 1 Peter 1:3.
None of this means that Jesus is the only true God, Yahweh, who sent Jesus. -- Isaiah 61:1; John 17:1,3.
Additionally, the mystery being spoken of is not God's piety to himself, but mostly about His Son's piety toward his God in Jesus' perfect obedience and reflection of God's glory. As God is in Jesus, the believer is in Jesus, and Jesus and God are in the believer (John 10:38; 14:10,20; Romans 8:1,2; 12:5; 1 Corinthians 1:30; 3:1; 2 Corinthians 1:21; 5:17,19; 12:19; Galatians 2:4; 3:28), and Jesus prayed "that they may all be one; even as you, Father, are in me, and I in you, that they also may be one in us; that the world may believe that you sent me." (John 17:21, see also John 17:23) All of this pertains to the secret of piety that Paul was speaking about.
Thus whether Paul actually used the word THEOS or HOS or HO does not really matter.
The 264 manuscripts being referred to above are evidently the "cursive" copies of Paul's letters that contain 1 Timothy 3:16. Just citing these manuscripts, or any other comparisons of numbers of manuscripts, has very little meaning except that one would wish to becloud the issue. If a thousand manuscripts have been copied from only one manuscript that contains an error, and only one manuscript is available that does not contain the error, the fact a thousand manuscripts have been copied with an error does not take away the fact that these thousand manuscripts do contain the error.
http://www.bible-researcher.com/dogma.html
http://www.bible-researcher.com/timothy.html
http://www.bible-researcher.com/alexandrinus4.html
It is claimed that the "os" ("he, he who, who") reading in the Classical Greek of Vaticanus and Sinaiticus sets up an impossibility in both Greek and English grammar, being a sentence with a subject and no predicate.
What is being done is an attempt to discredit the manuscripts that have HOS by the argument that the masculine HOS does not match the neuter musteerion.
Actually, however, one should not be attempting to match HOS with musterion, for the entire description, or "hymn", following is the musterion, not the word HOS in itself. It is a "hymn" of Christ's faithfulness to God. In verse 13, Paul stated: "For those who have served well as deacons gain to themselves a good standing, and great boldness in the faith which in Christ Jesus." He had earlier referred to the "the mystery [musteerion] of faith." (1 Timothy 3:9) He continues to explain why he has written these things, that "you may know how men ought to behave themselves in the house of God, which is the assembly (eclessia -- called out ones) of the living God, the pillar and ground of the truth." He is speaking about godliness in the church as a mystery to the world, but which godliness can be seen in Jesus, etc. The correspondence of musterion is not to the word HOS, but the all the rest of the lines in verse 16 that follow, with it understood that HOS refers to Christ Jesus who displayed this godliness.
http://godandson.reslight.net/1tim3-16.html
Christian love,
Ronald
http://godandson.reslight.net
The Orthodox Corruption of Scripture:
The Effect of Early Christological Controversies
on the Text of the New Testament
http://biblestore.reslight.net/item-0032.html |
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Friday, January 18, 2008 - Genesis 1:26 - Who Was God Speaking To? |
Genesis 1:26 - God said, "Let us make man in our image."
This verse is often quoted as proof of the trinity doctrine. The claim is that one person of God is speaking to another person of God. Of course, in reality, such a thought has to be added to and read into what is said, for there is nothing in the verses about three persons in Yahweh.
Almighty Yahweh was evidently speaking to someone when He was creating man. Comparing spiritual revealment with spiritual revealment, we find that Yahweh was speaking to the prehuman Jesus, who acted as God’s agent in the creation of the world of mankind. “The world was made through him.” (John 1:10, World English Bible translation) The Greek word for "through" in John 1:3,10 indicates one being used as an agent, and is so acknowledged by most Greek scholars.
More information may be found at:
http://godandson.reslight.net/gen-1-26.html
Related books:
When Jesus Became God
Jesus Was Not a Trinitarian
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Tuesday, October 10, 2006 - The "One Lord" Fallacy |
Some trinitarians will quote Deuteronomy 6:4 from the King James Version (or similar translation) like this: "Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God is one LORD." Then they will turn to 1 Corinthians 8:6, where we read that to the church there is "one Lord Jesus Christ." There is "one Lord", they say, and that "one Lord" is Jesus. Most scholars should know that the two scriptures are not speaking of the same thing. In Deuteronomy 6:4, the KJV, as well as many other translations have substituted "LORD" for the divine name. This should not be done, and to those ignorant of the truth, the above reasoning seems logical. Some will claim that the Greek word "kurios", often rendered "the Lord" in the New Testament, means "Yahweh", since in the extant Greek NT manuscripts we find that kurios is often substituted for the divine name. Such is sophistry, however, for kurios is used of others than Yahweh in the NT, as well as in other Greek writings.* The word "kurios" does not mean "Yahweh", any more than the Hebrew words for "Lord", such as "adon" or "adonai"**, mean "Yahweh". 1 Corinthians 8:6 is not identifying Jesus as the one Yahweh of Deuteronomy 8:6.
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*See our studies on the divine name:
http://name.reslight.net
Likewise, sometimes our trinitarian neighbors will compare Deuteronomy 6:4 and 1 Corinthians 6:8 with Zechariah 14:9, using the King James Version, or a similar translation, to reach the conclusion that the "one Lord" of these scriptures is Jesus. Zechariah 14:9, reads, according to the King James Version, "And the LORD shall be king over all the earth: in that day shall there be one LORD, and his name one." By use of the word "LORD" in all caps, the KJV shows that in the Hebrew, the divine name appears, and that "the LORD" has been substituted for the divine name. Thus the World English Bible translation renders this verse in this manner: "Yahweh will be King over all the earth. In that day Yahweh will be one, and his name one." By this we can readily see that Zechariah 14:9 is not speaking about the Lord Jesus, as in 1 Corinthians 8:6, but rather of Yahweh, the God and Father of Jesus.
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See:
Jesus is Not Yahweh
http://godandson/reslight.net/jesusnotyhwh.html
Others will say that Yahweh is referred to as "Lord" many times in the Hebrew scriptures, such as Genesis 15:2,8, Exodus 4:10; 5:22; 15:17; 23:17; 24:17; Deuteronomy 3:24; 9:26; 10:17; Joshua 3:13; 7:7; and many more. Thus, they ask, how can only Jesus be the "one Lord", as stated in 1 Corinthians 8:6, if Yahweh is also "Lord"? Actually, 1 Corinthians 8:6 does not state that ther is only "one Lord". Let us read 1 Corinthians 8:5,6 from Young's Literal Translation: "for even if there are those called gods, whether in heaven, whether upon earth -- as there are gods many and lords many -- yet to us [is] one God, the Father, of whom [are] the all things, and we to Him; and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom [are] the all things, and we through Him." What it says is that "to us [to the church] there is one Lord "through whom are all things, and we through him." Yahweh is "Lord", but he is not the "one Lord" through whom are the all (Greek transliteration: ta panta). Thus to the church, God has appointed one Lord through whom all things are provided from the God and Father of Jesus to the church (as well as the blessings of the age to come), including the existence of the believers as new creatures in Christ. -- John 1:17; Romans 3:22; 5:10,21; 2 Corinthians 1:20; 5:17,18; Galatians 4:7; 6:15; Ephesians 1:5; 2:10; Philippians 1:11; Titus 3:6.
Paul had just written concerning the idol-gods of the nations, and declares that the informed Christian knows that the idols are nothing. It is these that Paul refers to as those who are "called" gods. On earth, of course, the idols are something in that the carved images are made of wood or stone, and wood and stone is indeed "something", but as far as having the will and might to bring about or influence events in the world to a purposeful outcome, these gods are nothing. Thus, while they are "called" gods, they are not so by nature, which nature is special "might, strength", power, as based on the Hebraic meaning of the words that are translated as "God/god"*. (Galatians 4:8) They have no special might of themselves to perform any prophecy, any purpose, that might be attributed to them. In the heavens, the sun, the moon, stars and constellations, etc., have been called "gods". The sun, the moon, the stars, etc., are indeed something, as far as the substances that are combined in their make-up is concerned. But they are nothing as far as the claim that these are "gods", in that they do not have any will or might bring about any purposeful outcome amongst the intelligent creation, they are "nothing". Yet these have been called "gods" and "lords". The word Adonis comes from the Hebrew word "Adon", meaning "Lord". Thus these are "called" gods and lords, although they are not so by nature, as they, of themselves, cannot perform or accomplish any will, prophecy, or purpose that might be attributed to them. Most are familiar with the usage of the word "baal" (meaning "the Lord", "lord", or "the master") and its usage regarding false gods.
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*See
Hebraic Usage of the Titles for "God"
http://godandson.reslight.net/hebraictitles.html
But Paul continues, "as there are gods many and lords many." The Westcott and Hort Interlinear has this as: "as even are gods many and lords many." Paul acknowledges that there are those who are "called" gods who have no might, no power, and yet he also goes on to acknowledge that there are indeed "many gods and many lords". Does the Bible speak of others than Yahweh as god or lord? Yes, it does. Moses was said to made a god -- a mighty one -- to Pharaoh. (Exodus 7:1) The judges of Israel were spoken of as the ELOHIM, the might (as a collective body), in Israel. (Exodus 21:6; 22:8,9,28 -- see Acts 23:5) The angels are spoken of as "gods" (elohim) in Psalm 82:6,7. (compare Hebrews 2:9; also Psalm 50:1 and 96:4.) The wicked spirit that impersonated Samuel is called elohim, a god, a mighty one. (1 Samuel 28:13) Various kings are referred to as "gods" -- "the strong" (KJV) -- in Ezekiel 32:21. All of these are indeed "gods", and while they have might, strength, power, they do not have such of their own being, but only as they have received such from the Might of the universe, Yahweh. Likewise, many are indeed "lords" in various capacities. The Hebrew word "adon", means "lord" or "master". This word is used of a master over slaves (Genesis 24:14,27), rulers (Genesis 45:8), and husbands. (Genesis 18:12) The original Hebrew text contained only consonants, and adon appears is represented by the four consonants: "aleph-dalet-vav/waw-nun", corresponding somewhat to our A-D-W-N. Some transliterate this as "'adown". Two other forms of adon are adoni (my Lord), and adonai, my Lords (plural), or a plural intensive -- the plural form used as a superlative -- of "my Lord") The form "adoni" ("my Lord") is represented by the Hebrew characters "aleph-dalet-nun-yod" (corresponding, roughly to the English characters ADNY. The Masoretes, in about the third century or later after Christ, added the vowel point roughly called "quamets" (sounds like the English "a" in the word "all") to form the word "adonai". They added this vowel point wherever they believed that the word referred to Yahweh, and not someone else. Where ADNY appeared to be referring to someone else than Yahweh, they added the vowel point roughly called "hireq", corresponding to the English letter "i" carrying the English short "i" sound, as in the word "machine". This is usually transliterated from the Masoretic text as "adoni".
Once in a while someone will claim that, while "lord" in the Old Testament may be used of others than Yahweh, in the New Testament the word "kurios" is only used of Jesus and his Father. Let us examine to see if this is true.
The Hebrew form adoni is used of Jesus in Psalm 110:1: "Yahweh says to my Lord [adoni], "Sit at my right hand, Until I make your enemies your footstool for your feet." This scripture is translated into the Greek as "kuriw [an inflection of kurios] mou" [literally, "lord of me"] in Matthew 22:44; Mark 12:36; Luke 20:42; and Acts 2:34, where it is applied to Jesus as David's Lord. Thus we can say that Kurios of the New Testament corresponds to the Hebrew word adown (and its variations).
While there are several instances in the parables of Jesus that have the word "kurios" applied to master of a house, or the master of the workers, etc., some may claim that these instances actually apply the word indirectly to Jesus. It is interesting to note, however, that the King James Version renders kurios as "sir" in Matthew 21:30; John 4:11,15,19,49; 5:7; 12:21; as "master(s)" in Mark 12:35; Luke 14:21; 16:13; and as "owners" in Luke 19:33. In many of these instances, it is clear that the speaker is not addressing Jesus as "Yahweh", but simply as an address to a man. Nevertheless, in Matthew 27:63; Acts 17:16,19,30; Ephesians 6:5,9; Colossians 4:11, we have definite instances where the Greek word Kurios is used of others than God or Jesus. Thus it is indeed true that there are indeed "many lords", as stated in 1 Corinthians 8:6. None of these "lords", however, is the "one Lord" "through whom" the church receives all things, nor are the members of the church "through" any of these other lords.
Paul further states: "yet to us [is] one God, the Father, of whom [are] the all things, and we to Him." Several words are usually added by translators to the Greek here, and Young's translation above shows two words added by the brackets []. However, it does not show that the word "things" is also added. The Westcott & Hort Interlinear has "ta panta" as "the all (things)", with the word "things" in parentheses, denoting that it is added to the rendering. The Greek phrase "ta panta" literally means "the all", pertaining to the church. The all that the church has is "of" or "from" the one God, the God and Father of Jesus. "The all" is "from" any of the other who are indeed "gods", and certainly not from any of the idols that are "called" "gods". The believer has offered himself "to" the God and Father of Jesus, through Jesus. -- Acts 20:32; Romans 5:10; 6:10,11; 12:1; 14:8; 2 Corinthians 2:15; 9:11; Galatians 2:19; Ephesians 5:20; Philippians 4:18; 1 Thessalonians 1:9; Hebrews 7:19,25; 11:6; 12:28; 13:15; James 4:7,8; 1 Peter 2:5; 3:18; 4:6.
The scriptures identify the only true God -- the Supreme Being, the "might" of the universe -- as Yahweh, the God of Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, David, and the prophets. (Jeremiah 10:10; 42:5) Jesus identified the God he prayed to as the same God as that of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, and by stating that his Father is "the only true God" signified that there is only one true Supreme Being, one true Might of the universe. (Luke 20:37; John 8:54; 17:1,3) Who sent the prophets? None other than Yahweh, the Father of Jesus. (Judges 6:8; 1 Samuel 3:20; 1 Kings 16:12; 2 Kings 14:25; 17:3; 2 Chronicles 25:15; Jeremiah 28:12; 37:2,6; 46:1; Ezekiel 14:4; Hosea 12:13; Haggai 1:3,12; 2:1,10; Zechariah 1:1; Acts 3:8) It is this same Yahweh -- the only true God, the God and Father of Jesus -- who also sent Jesus. This same God is therefore the God and Father of Jesus. -- Matthew 23:39; Mark 11:9,10; Luke 13:35; John 3:2,17; 5:19,43; 6:57; 7:16,28; 8:26,28,38; 10:25; 12:49,50; 14:10; 15:15; 17:8,26; Hebrews 1:1,2; Revelation 1:1.
Jesus is appointed as the one Lord of the church by Yahweh, the God of Jesus. There is one God, the Father, Yahweh, the God of Israel, who sent Jesus (John 17:1,3), and this one God has appointed for the church (as well as for the world regarding the age to come) one Lord, Jesus. -- Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Psalm 2:2,6,8; 45:7; Isaiah 9:7; 61:1; Matthew 28:18; Luke 1:32; John 3:35; 5:22,26,27,30; Acts 2:36; 5:31; 10:42; 17:31; Romans 14:9; 1 Corinthians 8:6; Colossians 1:18; Ephesians 1:17,20-22.
http://godandson.reslight.net/echad-one.html
Christian love,
Ronald
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Thursday, August 3, 2006 - John 10:30 |
John 10:30 - I and the Father are one [Greek, HEN].
John 17:22 - We are one [Greek, HEN]
John 10:30 is often quoted or referred to as evidence that Jesus and his Father are one God, or one being (substance). However, if Jesus meant this to say that he and his Father are one God (THEOS), we are left with the question: Why did he use the Greek neuter HEN (one), rather than the masculine HEIS, which would be grammatically required in the Greek if he meant to say that he and his Father are one God? Additionally, if he meant to say that he and his Father are one being, as in the trinitarian expression, "treis hypostaseis en mia ousia", why did he not use the Greek feminine for "one", that is, MIA, since the Greek word OUSIA is feminine, not neuter?
In John 17:22, in prayer to the only true God who sent him (John 17:1,3), Jesus made a similar statement: "We are one", again using the Greek word HEN, not HEIS or MIA. But if he meant that he and his Father are one God, why did in the context pray for his follower to be one [HEN], even and he and his Father are one [HEN]? And further why did he pray of his followers, "that they may be one [HEN], even as we are"? (John 17:11) Was he praying for his followers to be the one true God with him and his Father? Who did he identify as the only true God? (John 17:3) And why did he also pray concerning his followers: "that they may all be one; even as you, Father, are in me, and I in you, that they also may be one in us."? -- John 17:21.
Those who have an ears to hear (Matthew 13:16) are invited to study this:
http://godandson.reslight.net/john-10-30.html
Yours in service Jesus and His God,
Ronald
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Saturday, July 29, 2006 - John 2:19-22 |
John 2:19 - Jesus answered them, "Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up."
John 2:20 - The Jews therefore said, "Forty-six years was this temple in building, and will you raise it up in three days?"
John 2:21 - But he spoke of the temple of his body.
John 2:22 - When therefore he was raised from the dead, his disciples remembered that he said this, and they believed the Scripture, and the word which Jesus had said.
Many believe that this scripture is saying that Jesus raised himself from the dead. If we read it closely, however, we can see that Jesus did not say anything about raising himself from the dead, but he does refer to the raising of "the temple of his body." Jesus did, indeed, raise his body for the appearance to his disciples in the locked room, on the third day after his being put to death. (Luke 24:36-49; John 20:19,20) However, this was after he had been raised from the dead as a spirit being by his God and Father. -- Acts 2:24,32,26; 3:15; 4:10; 10:40; 13:30,33,37; 17:31; Romans 4:24; 8:11; 10:9; 1 Corinthians 6:14; 15:15; Galatians 1:1; Colossians 2:11,12; 1 Thessalonians 1:9,10; 1 Peter 1:21; 3:18.
More on this can be found at:
http://godandson.reslight.net/body-temple.html
Christian love,Ronald |
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Wednesday, July 26, 2006 - John 14:9 |
The statement has been made that "Jesus said clearly that you see Him you see the father." The statement is true.
However, evidently it is stated with the assumption that this means that Jesus is the God of Israel; yet nothing is presented as to how this would mean that Jesus is Yahweh, the God of Israel.
Of course, Jesus' words do not mean that Jesus is his God, any more than they mean that Jesus is his Father, but that one could see the God and Father of the Lord Jesus in the life and sayings of Jesus.
http://godandson.reslight.net/john-14-9.html
Christian love,
Ronald |
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Saturday, July 22, 2006 - Jesus and His God |
Many do not think of Jesus as having a God, a Supreme Being who is superior to himself. It is generally believed amongst the Christian community that Jesus is the Supreme Being. However, God has revealed by means of his holy spirit through the scriptures that Yahweh (Jehovah) Himself is the only true God, the God and Father of the Lord Jesus. Jesus thus has One who is the Supreme Being over him; Jesus is not his Supreme Being whom he worships, prays to, and who sent him, and whose will he carried out in willful obedience. -- Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Matthew 4:4 (Deuteronomy 8:3; Luke 4:4); Matthew 4:7 (Deuteronomy 6:16); Matthew 4:10 (Exodus 20:3-5; 34:14; Deuteronomy 6:13,14; 10:20; Luke 4:8); Matthew 22:29-40; Matthew 26:42; Matthew 27:46; Mark 10:6 (Genesis 1:27; Genesis 2:7,20-23); Mark 14:36; 15:34; Luke 22:42; John 4:3; 5:30; 6:38; 17:1,3; 20:17; Romans 15:6; 2 Corinthians 1:3; 11:31; Ephesians 1:3,17; Hebrews 1:9; 10:7; 1 Peter 1:3; Revelation 2:7; 3:2,12.
This blog is in conjunction with the site "Jesus and His God" and we invite your comments concerning or related to the site.
Christian love,
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About Me
The glory of Jesus and the relationship of Jesus with His God before coming to the earth, while on earth, after his resurrection, and after his ascension. The comments here should be related to the topic, or something that appears at this website:
http://godandson.reslight.net
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